Maths Olympiad 61191x

Eur ka

ACADEMY FOR EXCELLENCE

I N D E X Sr. No.

Content

Page No.

1

Introduction - Eureka Academy

1 to 5

2

NTSE

6 to 8

3

Pravinyapragana

9 to 10

4

Homibhabha

11 to 12

5.

RMO

13 to 14

6.

Exams at a Glance

15

7.

NTSE Question Set - MAT

16 to 23

8.

Competitive Exam Detail

24

9.

NTSE Question Set - SAT

25 to 34

10.

NTSE Question Set - MAT

34 to 39

11.

Answer Key NTSE

40

12.

Eureka Results

41 - 48

1

Eur ka


All our dreams can come true if we have the courage to pursue them ! OUR MISSION : SUCCESS When Archimedes exclaimed “Eureka!” he meant that he had found the solution… That's precisely what is appropriate for Eureka Academy. Under the prudent and able guidance of Prof. Amit Sonthalia and Prof. Manish Nagdev, Eureka Academy is doing the same… finding solutions to parents' and students' academic problems! “In this part of the city”, observes Prof. Amit Sonthalia, “there are typical problems faced by students. Poor understanding of Languages, weak Mathematical background, difficulties in understanding the intricacies of Scientific Laws and their applications, etc. are a few to start with.” “Moreover”, says Prof. Manish Nagdev, “the students are so stressed out with their daily routine that they hardly pay attention to 'understanding' and fall prey to 'rote' learning, leaving themselves in dark about the clarity of concepts.” Prof. Amit Sonthalia and Prof. Manish Nagdev, the two mentors of Eureka Academy have been using uncomplicated, simple and easy to comprehend techniques to make the students understand the complex and difficult theories. “We have been coaching students for the last 15 years and we know exactly what your child wants”, they tell the parents excitedly, “and we provide them the same with the utmost enthusiasm!”

2

Eur ka


SYSTEMATIC STUDY PATTERN S.S.C 2014-2015

VIII & IX 2014-2015 • Batches commence in first week of June. • Daily 3hr lectures. • Two tests per week. • We conduct unit test & semester exams before school exams. • School wise syllabus completed well in advance. • Printed notes given for all subjects. • Attendance & Tests reports are sent on monthly basis. • Regular follow up in case the student remains absent.

3

4

5

NTSE

Eur ka


Intro - National Talent Search Examination (NTSE) is a national-level scholarship program in India to identify and recognize students with high intellect and academic talent. It is one of the most prestigious exams in India.Close to 1,500,000 students appear in this scholarship exam every year. The scheme is open to students of Indian nationality. Only students studying in Class X are eligible to appear for the selection process. As it is organized by an official body (NCERT), it is widely regarded by the Government of India as the toughest and most prestigious examination at high school level in the country 2) Who conducts - The National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) - Official web site - http://www.ncert.nic.in/index.html-NTSE will be conducted for Class X students 3) Benefit - 1) Each year 1000 students get this scholarship 2) Reservation: 15% scholarships will be reserved for students belonging to the SC category, 7,5% scholarships for students belonging to the ST category and 3% for Physically Challenged Group of Students, 3) The amount of scholarship will be Rs. 500/- per month for all the students studying 4) Subject (portion)- The NCERT has not prescribed any set syllabus for the NTSE. The NTSE is conducted by NCERT for the students who are studying in X standard. The NTSE comprises of two level tests:Physics -12,Chemistry -11,Biology 12,Mathematics -20, History-10,Geography -10,Pol. Science -10,Economics-05 There is no prescribed syllabus for the NTS Examination The National Talent Search Examination will be conducted for students studying at class X level. The examination consists of two tests namely the Mental Ability Test (MAT) and the Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT). Each test consists of 9O multiple choice type questions. Each question has four alternatives marked 1,2,3 and 4. The candidate has to select one correct answer from the given alternatives and mark its number in the answersh««t. Each correct answer carries one mark. Thus the total score of a candidate in a test is equal to the number of questions answered correctly by him/her. Mental Ability Test Items (MAT) There will be 9O multiple choice type items, with four/five alternatives, out of which only one will correct answer. This test is given to the candidates to judge their power of reasoning, ability to think ability to judge, evaluate or discriminate, ability to visualize in the space, spatial orientation, etc. A variety of questions e.g. analogies, classification, series, pattern perception, hidden figures, coding-decoding, block assembly, problem solving etc. are used for this purpose. 1)

6

Eur ka


Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT) : The Scholastic Aptitude Test consists of 90 multiple choice items of one mark each. Each item shall have four alternatives, out of which only one will be the correct answer. These questions are from Science(Physics, Chemistry and Biology), Mathematics, History, Geography, Political Science And Economics and also includes Language Comprehensive Test. These questions are basically multiplechoice questions where one alternative is correct. However, some questions are of different types like matching type, arrange the sequence, true and false statements and questions based on ages apart from simple multiple choice questions.

6)

7)

8)

Format (Q/Hrs) First stage (STSE – State Talent Search Examination) is the state level. After clearing stage -1 selected student are eligible to write Stage- II. Each Test consists of 90 multiple choice type questions. Wherein each question has 4 alternatives marked 1, 2, 3 and 4. The candidate has to select one correct answer from the given alternatives and mark its number in the provided answer sheet. Each correct answer carries one mark each and for each wrong answer there is a negative marking scheme announced from session 2013-14. Stage two has negative marking but not stage 1. Age restriction : Only 10th class studying students can appear in NTSE. Those students who have appeared in NTSE while studying in class VIII are not eligible to write the exam again. Process to fill up form - *Use Legal (8.5” X 14”) size paper for taking print. Instructions for filling up the application form for State Level National Talent Search Examination 1. The application form is meant for the students appearing at the State Level NTS examination conducted by each state/UT. 2. The candidate/ Principal shall submit the form directly to the state/UT liaison officer only. 3. The candidate/Principal must deposit the application fee, if any, prescribed by state/UTs with application form. 7

Eur ka


4. The candidate/Principal should leave the 4-Digit Centre code blank, to be filled by the liaison officer / other authorities. 5. Note : – Students can enroll themselves for the examination through the school only. For form submission details your regional NTSE Liaison Officer – Click here for NTSE Liaison Officers List First Stage: It has to be attested by your school Principal . And normally it is routed through your school only. For Second level, you need not to apply , you will be receiving the it card from NCERT for the second stage Fees - 100 rs per candidates

8

Pravinyapragana

Eur ka


1)

Intro – The Briham Mumbai GanitAdhyapak Mandal, an off-shoot of the Maharashtra GanitAdhyapak Mandal was established in the year 1979 under the Public Charitable Trust, Mumbai . GanitPravinya, and Pradnya, are two examinations that are organized by the Mandal every year for the students of 5th and 8th Standards, while GanitParangat is conducted for the students of 10th Standard. The Pravinya examination is open for all students of the 5th and 8th Standards who have secured more than 60% or more marks in the subject of Mathematics in the final examination of the 4th and 7th school examination. 2) Who conducts – The Briham Mumbai GanitAdhyapak Mandal, an off-shoot of the Maharashtra GanitAdhyapak Mandal was established in the year 1979 under the Public Charitable Trust, Mumbai . 3) Benefit- Removing fear of Mathematics among the students, and To develop interest and confidence in learning of mathematics among them Mandal celebrates its prize distribution ceremony every year in April and felicitates the talented students. Mathematics Pravinya Examination · Cash prizes to the first 25 students scoring 75% & above marks · Cash prizes to the first 2 students [each for standard 5th and 8th] · Certificates to each student eligible for Mathematics Talent Competition for securing 75% & above marks in Mathematics Pravinya Examination. 4) Subject (portion) – The candidates are advised to refer to the official website of the Briham Mumbai GanitAdhyapak Mandal http://www.mumbaiganitmandal.com /engreferencebooks.htm for the recommended list of Books and Periodicals Syllabus:-

Ref. Books :Date of Result :-

6)

For 5th std :- 1st to 4th std. and upto 1st semester of std. 5th For 8th std :- 5th to 7th std. and upto 1st semester of std. 8th Text Books + Ganit Prabhutva (5th) Text Books + Ganit Prabhutva (8th) 10rd January 2013on our website

Schedule GanitPravinya Every year the schools receive the notification for the examination from the Mandal between 25th August and 10th September. The schools are required to submit the list of the students along with the prescribed fees for the examination to the Mandal between 20th September and 30th September. The examination is conducted normally on the first Sunday of December or the last Sunday of November. The result is generally declared on 5th of January and only the names of the students securing 75 or more marks out of 100 in the Pravinya examination are announced for the next level Pradnya examination. 9

Eur ka


GanitPradnya The names of the students securing 75 or more marks out of 100 in the Pravinya examination are announced for the next level Pradnya examination every year between 5th and 10th January. The list is sent to the school though the students are NOT required to apply separately for this examination. The examination is conducted normally on the first or second Sunday of February while the result is generally declared between 10th and 15th of March. GanitParangat Every year the schools receive the notification for the examination from the Mandal between 10th and 15th of October. The schools are required to submit the list of the students along with the prescribed fees for the examination to the Mandal between 10th and 15th of December. The examination is conducted normally on the first or second Sunday of December / February. The result is generally declared on 20th of March. 7) Format (Q/Hrs)-duration The question papers are available for Pravinya Examination in Marathi, English, Hindi, Urdu, and Gujrathi languages, while for Pradnya they are available in Marathi, English, Hindi, and Gujrathi languages. The Pravinya examination duration is three hours, with 100 marks, while for Pradnya examination for 100 marks the allocated time is only two hours. There is no negative marking. The following table summarizes the examination details Sr. No. Examination Time Marks 1 Pravinya 3 Hours 100 2 Pradnya 2 Hours 100 3 Parangat Hours 100 8) Age restriction • The Pravinya examination is open for all students of the 5th and 8th Standards who have secured more than 60% or more marks in the subject of Mathematics in the final examination of the 4th and 7th school examination. This is the qualifying examination for the Ganit Pradnya examination. • The Pradnya examination is open for all students of the 5th and 8th Standards who have successfully cleared the Ganit Pravinya examination by securing 75 or 75 + marks out of 100 • The Ganit Parangat is conducted for the students of 10th Standard. 9) Fees : Fees Rs.50/- per student

10

Eur ka

HOMIBHABHA

4)


1) Intro - Dr.HomiBhabhaBalvaidnyanikSpardha is an excellent way to make a strong foundation for Science subject. It will help the student to be much ahead in the science knowledge .The competition consists of Written Test, Practical Work and Project work The examination consists of three stages 1.Written Test 2.Practical Examination 3.Viva Voce & Project 2) Who conducts : The Mumbai Science Teachers' Association conducts Dr. Homi Bhabha Balvaidnyanik Spardha since 1981 to encourage students to take interest in science, to inculcate scientific attitude and to search science talent in students. The competition is conducted for the students studying in VI and IX Std. This competition is based on scientific knowledge acquired by the students up to std. VI and IX. This competition is conducted in English and Marathi Media. Subject (portion)-benefit-duration Phase No.

Descrip on of the phase

Max Dura on Marks of exam.

Phase I Wri en test 100 100 mul ple choice ques ons based on science & G.K.in science Phase II Prac cal Test : For VI std.: There will be 10 experiments of 3 marks each based on general science. For IX std. : Physics: Chemistry: Biology: Phase III Interviewa) General interview b) Evalua on of ac on research report

90 min.

30

30 min.

10 10 10

10 min. 10 min. 10 min.

30 30

5 to 10 min. 5 to 10 min.

11

Selec on Procedure

a) Top 7.5% students are selected for phase II b) Students obtaining marks above 35 will get ing cer ficate

a) All candidates get merit cer ficate. b) Selec on for phase III -30% of the marks obtained in phase I and marks obtained in phase II are considered. c) Top 10 % students are selected for phase III

a) Considering 30% marks of Phase I, + Marks of Phase .II &Ph.III., top 10% will get Gold Medal, cer ficate and scholar ship of Rs. 700/b) Rest of the candidates will get silver medal, cer ficates and prize of Rs. 100/-

Eur ka


• • • • • • • • 6)

7) • •

•

Textbooks of IV, V and VI std of SSC syllabus and Content related to the above from ICSE and CBSE books for 6th std. Textbooks of VII, VIII and IX std of SSC syllabus and Content related to the above from ICSE and CBSE books for 9th std. Marathi medium students should refer the English medium textbooks and the ICSE, CBSE books for examples. Majority of the questions will be from SSS board text books. Less emphasis will be given for knowledge based questions and more emphasis for understanding, reasoning, correlation, etc. The questions related to general knowledge in science will be based on the topics like happenings of the last year and science around day to day life. The written test consists of 100 questions : 30 Physics • 30 Chemistry • 30 Biology • 10 General Science Awareness Schedule : Stage 1 : Mid September, 100 Marks, 90 Minutes Stage 2 (Practical Competition): Mid January Stage 3 (Interviews): Mid February Format (Q/Hrs) There are no fixed cut-offs per se. Every year the cutoffs vary. They are mentioned at the time of declaration of results. The examination consists of three stages 1.Written Test 2.Practical Examination 3.Viva Voce &ProjectOne mark is alloted for each question. Total marks are hundred. There is no negative marking. 9) Fees 60 Rs per students ( 30 Rs for municipal school)

12

RMO 1)

2)

2) 3)

4.

Eur ka


Intro – A Mathematical Olympiad is a problem solving competition open to all "mathletes". The aim of the competition is to test innate problem solving skills. The problems are restricted to those that require minimal background and high ingenuity. Since one of the goals of such olympiads is to identify talent at a young age, these olympiads are usually restricted to students not yet itted to any undergraduate programme. Who conducts The Regional vMathematical Olympiad is a state level examination, a stepping stone towards the national level examination, the INMO. The Regional Mathematical Olympiad 2013 (RMO-2013) for Maharashtra and Goa Region RMO stands for regional maths olampiad… but there are such olmpiads for each subjects. Benefit – selected students from RMO goes to further level like imo (international maths Olympiads) Subject (portion) Mathematical Olympiad Examinations have no specific syllabus. However,the students are assumed to have knowledge of pre-calculus Mathematics. In Mathematics Olympiad examination, there are no theory questions. Generally,in RMO examination there are 6-7 problems to be solved in three hours. Here is a brief outline of the topics to be studied. It is expected that the student is well versed in all the topics that he/she has studied up to the 10th Standard, as well as in the topics from the 11th Standard. syllabus such as: Trigonometry, Geometry, Surds, Complex numbers, Quadratic Equations, Permutations and Combinations, Binomial theorem, A.P., G.P.,H.P. and Principle of Mathematical Induction. 1. Number Theory: Divisibility of integers, Euclid's algorithm to nd the GCD of two integers. Expressing the GCD of two integers as a linear combination of the two. There are in nitely many prime numbers. The fundamental theorem of arithmetic. Arbitrarily large gaps in the sequence of primes. Representation of positive integers in any base. Congruences. Chinese Remainder Theorem. Euler's function,(n): Fermat's little theorem. Greatest integer function, Arithmetic functions, Pythagorean triplets. 2. Algebra: Factorisation theorem. Remainder theorem. A polynomial of degree n has at most n roots. Relations between roots and coefficients ofpolynomials of degree n: Symmetric functions of roots. De Moivre's theorem and its applications. A.M.-G.M. inequality, Root mean square inequality,Cauchy-Schwarz Inequality, Tchebychev's Inequality. 3. Geometry: Euler line. Nine-point circle. Ptolemy's theorem. Ceva's theorem. Menelaus' theorem, Constructions and Geometric inequalities. Combinatorics : Pigeonhole principle, Permutations and Combinations, Inclusion 13

Eur ka


6) 7)

8)

9)

exclusion principle, Basic combinatorial numbers and combinatorial identities. Reference book Mathematical Circles : Dmitri Fomin and others (University Press). Mathematical Circles : Dmitri Fomin and others (University Press). Schedule – it’s a theory based paper and not MCQ. paper attached here with solution Format (Q/Hrs) The RMO will consist of two tests, the first of duration 2 hours and the second of 3 hours. The first test will be based on multiple-choice questions (MCQ), and in the second about 6 to 7 problems will be asked which the applicants will have to solve. We shall grade all the answer-scripts of the first MCQ-based test and based on the performance of the participants in it (i.e., the first test), we shall select an appropriate number of participants whose answer-scripts of the second test will be graded. Age restriction : The RMO is meant primarily for students of Class IX--XII. As special cases, exceptionally talented students from Class VIII may be allowed to appear at the discretion of the Regional Coordinator. Fees : 100 Rs

14

EXAMS AT A GLANCE EXAM

ELIGIBILITY

TENTATIVE DATE SYLLABUS

KVPY

Students enrolled in the Std. XI & have secured a min of 80% marks in PCMB

Oct. 2014

NTSE

Students of ClassX

Nov. 2014

NSEJS

Students born after 01-01- 1998 are eligible.

Nov. 2014

Eur ka


EXAM PATTERN

Anything from both 80 Objective CBSE and ICSE Questions board MAT 50 & SAT - 90 Syllabus of class X Language along with advance Comprehensive level test - 40. CBSE up to 10 CBSE up to 10 PCMB roughly PCMB roughly equal weightage equal weightage

Students selected INJSO (NSEJS: L- from Stage I 2) examination (NSEJS)

Feb. 2015

CBSE up to 10 PCMB roughly equal weightage

Time: 3 hrs.

Students in Class 9th

Sept. 2014

Textbooks of VII ,VIII and IX std of SSC, CBSE and ICSE

100 Q in 90 min PCB- 30 M each GK – 10M

HBBVS

NSTSE

Class 2-12

Feb. 2015

100Q-100MBased on the CBSE 90minutes, M- 25, syllabus P25, C20, B20, General-10

RMO

Class IX-XII

Dec. 2014

Up to class XII

MTSE (Maths)

Class 3-9

Feb. 2015

As per syllabus of 50Q -90Minute +2M CBSE and ICSE of for correct and -0.5 respective classes for wrong

Ganit Pravinya

Aspirants who have ed 7th class with min score of 60% in Maths

Dec. 2014

60% Mathex Book, Time: 3 hours 20% Text book, Marks : 100 Marks 20% advance level

NEMC (Prabhutva)

Students of Class V & VIII

Dec. 2014

5th to 7 std. & upto Time: 3 hours 1st semester of 8th Marks : 100 Marks

IMO

Class 1-12

Dec. 2014

Syllabus mentioned on the science 50Q in 1hr divided Olympiad into 3 sections foundation website

Class 1-12

Nov. 2014

Syllabus mentioned on the science Olympiad foundation website

NSO

15

3-hour written test 6 to 7 problems.

50Q in 1hr Section I: 15Q on MA Section II: 35Q on PCB

Eur ka


GENERAL MENTAL ABILITY TEST

Directions : Find the odd term out.

Q. 1 and 2. 1.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2.

Directions : In the following questions a specific group is given. From the given alternatives, find out the right term which matches the given group.

Q.

3

and 4.

123,

147, 173

(1) 201

4

(2) 225

(3) 169

(4) 144

XWVU, SRAP, NMLK (1)

BCDE

(2)

QRST

(3)

MNOP

(4)

IHGF

Directions : Write which number or alphabet in sequence replaces the question mark (?)

Q. 5 to 8.

5

1234, 1240, 1246, 1258, 1268, ? (1) 1280

6

(2) 92

(4) 1290

(3) 99 (4) 110

K16M, H19J, E22G? (1) D23B

8

(3) 1285

21, 23, 29, 47, 75? (1) 87

7

(2) 1284

(2) B24D (3) B25D (4) C24E

MNZA, LOYB, KPXC, JQWD? (1) IREV

(2) HSUF

(3) GTTG

16

(4) IRVE

Eur ka


Q. 9 to 12. —> Directions :— In each of the following questions there is a specific relationship between the first and second term. The same relationship exists between the third and fourth term which will replace the question mark (?). Select the correct term from the alternatives given. 9.

EFH : ILM : : ? : ?. (1) ILM : OPQ

10

BJH :

(2) EGH : IMN

(3) OPR : URT (4) OPQ : UBT

EQL : : DNJ : ?

(1) IYO

(3) GKI

(2) KZQ

(4) GUN

11. :

(1)

::

(2)

?

:

(3)

(4)

12. :

(1)

::

(2)

?

:

(3)

(4)

13. ambccmamcbcamcabacamcmamcb. In the given alphabet series how many times 'm' is preceded by 'a' and succeeded by 'c' (1) 6 (2) 3 (3) 5 (4) 4 14. In a certain code language if SAM is written as 15321, then in the same code how will the word ART be written ? (1) 32022 (2) 20181 (3) 11820 (4) 22203 15. In a certain code language if D = 4 and DEAR = 7, then how will the ward HOTEL be written ? (1) 8 (2) 10 (3) 12 (4) 20 16. A, B, C, D, E and F are six families living in different houses in a row. F and D are neighbours of B. E is neighbor of A and C. A is not a neighbour of F or D also if C is not a neighbour of D, then who is the neighbors of F ? (1) B and C (2) B and F (3) B and D (4) Only B.

17

Eur ka


Q. 17 and 18.—> Directions :— Suresh and Urmila are good at singing. Suman being expert in elocution sings sweetly. Parag being an orator is also good at acting and singing. Vijaya, a dramatist, also delivers good lectures. Pictures drawn by Parag and Suresh are in great demand. Find answers to the following questions from the given alternatives. 17. Who has all the skills ? (1) Suman (2) Urmila (3) Vijaya (4) Parag 18. Who is not an expert in elocution ? (1) Suman and Vijaya (2) Vijaya (3) Suresh and Urmila (4) Urmila 19. A transparent square shaped paper is folded along the dotted lines. What figure will be obtained ? Find the figure from the alternative figures given :

Answer Figure

Question Figure :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Q. 20 and 21.—> Directions :— Find the correct alternative which will replace the question mark. 1

21

4

9

4

9

622

4

(3) 631

(4) 824

7

5 9

15

?

18 4

5

(2) 19

50

1

8

6

3

(1) 5

1

2

8

(2) 93

?

7

6

6

3

246

3

22

8

3

551

(1) 262

6

5

5

(3) 27

(4) 89

22. Birthday of three siblings falls on 1st August. Ages of Kshama and Rama on 1st August 2002 were seven years and three years respectively. If Uma is neither elder to Kshama, nor younger to Rama, then among the following, which is the birth year of Uma ? (1) 1995

(2) 1994

(3) 1997

(4) 1999

Q. 23 to 25. —> Directions :— Find the odd term out. 23.

(1)

7830

(2) 6234

(3) 3246

(4) 7521

24.

(1)

R22D

(2) P36T

(3) M29G

(4) V24B

25.

(1)

CGLN

(2) BDFH

(3)

(4) DHLP

EJOT 18

Eur ka


Q. 26 and 27. —> Directions :— Using alphabets A to Z in sections of figure I and II a code has been created. First letter in every section is coded according to its shape and the second letter is coded using a dot.

e.g. A is coded as

; C is coded as

; T is coded as

; L is

coded as Figure

26.

27.

Figure

AM

OS

BZ

NK

WP

FJ

XR

HV

UC

EL TD

IQ YG

What will be the code of RING ? (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

What will be the code of SEVAK ? (1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28.

A rhythmic arrangement of alphabets is given. The missing letter alphabets appear in the same order in one of the alternative answers. Find the correct alternative : ---bc--ca--cba--c--ca (1) abbcc (2) bacba (3) bbbcc (4) abcbb

29.

How many trapeziums are there in the following figure ?

(1) 20

(2) 10

(3) 08

(4) 24

Q. 30 and 31—> Directions :— In each of the following question figures changes in a particular order. Find out the correct figure from the alternatives which will replace, the question mark (?). 19

Eur ka


30.

Question Figures :

Answer Figures :

(2)

(1)

31.

Question Figures :

(3)

(4)

Answer Figures :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32. Vivek is standing at the centre of a row of boys. Subhash sixth to the right of Vivek. Niwas is standing fifteenth to the left of Subhash. Niwas is standing eleventh to the right of Yogesh. Find the total number of boys standing in a row. (1) 38

(2) 41

(3) 40

(4)

42

33. If 'F' letter is on the upper surface of a cube, then which letter will be on the lower surface ? B C

D A

E

C

(1) B

(2) C

(3) D

(4) E

34. The figure given below is folded to form a cube. Of the following figures, find the nonrelevant figure.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Answer Figure

35. The ading figure is folded to form a cube. Of the following cub figures, find the most relevant figure.

(1)

(2)

20

(3)

(4)

Eur ka


Q. 36 to 38. —>Directions :— Information was gathered based on observations of readers of three newspapers A, B and C. 26% people read newspaper A, 25% people read newspaper B, 14% people read newspaper C, 11% people read both newspapers A and B, 10% people read both newspapers B and C, 9% people read both newspapers A and C and 0% people read only newspaper C. Based on this information answer the following 36. What is the average of readers of all three newspapers ? (1) 1 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 37. What is the average of people who read both A and B newspaper; but do not read C newspaper ? (1) 2 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 38. What is the average of number of readers who read at least one newspaper ? (1) 40 (2) 50 (3) 60 (4) 65 39. A folded piece of square paper is shown as question figure. The paper is unfolded. How will it look is shown in the alternatives. Select the correct alternative.

Question Figure :

Answer Figures :

(1)

Q.

(2)

(3)

(4)

40 and 41.—> Directions :— Two tables are given below, to which two groups of alphabets are written. In table I the row and columns are numbered 0 -- 4 and in table II the rows and columns are numbered 5-9. The alphabets in the tables represented first by their row number and then by their columns number e.g. A is represented as A = 12, 44. Table I

40

Table II

Which group of numbers represents DRAW ? (1) 41, 66, 23, 55

(2) 14, 89, 12, 78

(3) 23, 57, 30, 68

(4) 32, 75, 44, 76 21

Eur ka


41

Which group of numbers represents LOAN (1) 95, 33, 12, 58 (2) 77, 10, 42, 97 (3) 68, 42, 03, 56 (4) 59, 24, 12, 67 42. A square piece of paper is folded and cut at specific spots as shown in the figure. The paper when unfolded will look as shown in one of the alternatives. Select the correct alternative. Question Figure :

Answer Figures

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

Q. 43 to 45. -----> Directions :— In each of the following questions there is a specific relationship between the first and second term. The same relationship exists between the third and the fourth term. Understanding the relation find the term which will replace the question mark (?). 43. 82 : 40 : : 36 : ? (1) 19 (2) 15 (3) 74 (4) 17 44. 4 : 48 : : ? : 180 (1) 8 (2) 6 (3) 10 (4) 12 45. 15 : 36 : : 21 : ? (1) 48 (2) 35 (3) 45 (4) 23 Q. 46 and 47. Directions :— Frontal surface of a cube of length 4 cm is painted yellow. Similarly other surface is painted blue, the other two sides are painted green and red. The cube is then converted into 64 small cubes. Answer the following questions : 46. How many cubes have maximum two surfaces coloured ? (1) 56 (2) 48 (3) 24 (4) 8 47. How many cubes have one surface painted yellow ? (1) 24 (2) 32 (3) 16 (4) 8 48. Prakash is standing facing East. After turning 180° in anticlockwise direction,, he travels straight for 8 km. Turning to right he travels 2 km, then again turns right and travels 11 km, again turns right answer covers 6 km. How far is he from his starting point ? (1) 10 km (2) 3 km (3) 5 km (4) 13 km 22

Eur ka


Q. 49 and 50. —> Directions :— Observe the pyramid of alphabets. Answer the following questions : a b d g

c e

f

49. Which term is related to the vwdlkc, qrxedw, stzgfy ? (1) fghpoq (2) mnsyxr (3) ubiqph (4) cehmsn

h i j m n o p q r s t u v w x y z a b c d e f g h i j k l m n o p q r k

l

50.Find the term which replaces the question mark (?) : dheif : mfogp : : sztau : ? (1) eacif (2) yzsat (3) rxqwp (4) rsyfe s

SCHOLASTIC APTITUDE TEST 1. 2.

3.

4. 5. 6.

7.

8.

9.

For magnification in spherical mirrors object height is (1) Negative (2) Positive (3) For real images positive (4) For virtual images negative Nipermag is an alloy of : (1) iron, nickel, aluminium, cobalt (2) iron titanium, nickel; cobalt (3) iron, nickel, aluminium, titanium (4) iron, nickel, cobalt, titanium ' If 6.4 A current flows continuously for 4 seconds through a circuit, find the number of electrons flowing : (1). 4.8 x 10-19 (2) 4.8 x 1019 (3) 1.6 x 10-19 (4) 16 x 1019

After refraction of light through a glass slab, incident ray and refracted are : (1) perpendicular (2) parallel (3) in a straight line (4) (1) and (3) Convex lens is not used in : (1) simple microscope (2) spectacles (3) telescope (4) flood lights Magnetic field due to current carrying conductor depends on : (1) current flowing through conductor (2) distance from the conductor (3) length of the conductor (4) (1) and (2) Correct order of resistivity of materials at 20°C : (1) Conductors —> Insulators —> Alloys (2) Alloys —> Insulators —> Conductors (3) Alloys —> Conductors —> Insulators (4) Conductors —> Alloys —> Insulators If sum of velocities of light in two media is 3.25 x 108 m/s and their difference is 0.75 x 108m/s, find the refractive index of the second medium with respect to one: (1) 1.25 (2) 1.6 (3) 1.5 (4) 1.3 The ability of a lens to converge or diverge light rays depends on : (1) principal axis (2) focal length (3) object distance (4) image distance 23

24

25

Eur ka 10. The frequency of direct current is : (1) 0 Hz (2) 50 Hz (3) 100 Hz (4) 25 Hz 11. As the thickness of the atmosphere increases colour of scattered light is found " in the ..................................... order. (1) blue, violet, yellow, red (2) violet, blue, yellow, red (3) red, yellow, blue, violet (4) violet, blue, red, yellow 12. Value of acceleration due to gravity of earth is maximum : (1) At centre of earth (2) At surface of earth (3) At a height of 50 km from earth's surface (4) At a height of 12 km from earth's surface 13 .......................................is obtained by heating Gypsum. (1) Alum (2) Unhydrous CuSO4 (3) Burnt alum (4) Plaster of Paris 14. S-block elements are : (1) Elements of group I-A and III-B (2) Elements of group I-A and II-A (3) Elements of group I-A and I-B (4) Elements of group I-A and II-B 15. Chemical formula of Bleaching powder is : (1) Ca2OCl2 (2) Ca(OCl2)2 (3) CaOCl2 (4) CaCl2 16. The elements in the same group have : (1) Same number of shells (2) Atomic size decreases (3) Same number of valence electrons (4) Metallic properties decreases 17. 2H2S + SO2 —>3S + 2H2O In the above reaction : (a) H2S gets oxidised (b) SO2 gets reduced (c) H2S gets reduced (c) S02 gets oxidised (1) (a) & (c) (2) (b) & (c) (3) (a) & (b) (4) (b) & (d) 18. Which of the following metals exist in their native state ? (a) Calcium (b) Au (c) Zn (d) Ag (1) (6) & (c) (2) (a) & (6) (3) (a) & (c) (4) (b) & (d) 19. Which of the solution will remain colourless with phenolphthalein indicator? (1) Soap solution (2) Ca(OH)2 solution (3) Vinegar solution (4) Baking soda solution 20. Aquaregia is a mixture of : (1) 3:1 conc. HC1 and conc. HNO3 (2) 3:1 conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4 (3) 3:1 conc. HNO3 and conc. HC1 (4) 1:3 conc. HC1 and conc. HNO3 21. The correct structural formula of Benzene is : ACADEMY FOR EXCELLENCE

26

Eur ka


22. Identify the functional group present in Acetic Acid

23. Amongst the following, which solution shows Tyndall effect ? (a) Salt solution (b) Milk (c) CuS04 solution (d) Starch solution (1) (a) & (d) (2) (c) & (d) (3) (a) & (c) (4) (b) & (d) 24. Which is the largest gland in the body ? (1) Liver (2) Pancreas (3) Salivary glands (4) Stomach 25. Find the correct order of blood circulation through heart : (1) Right atrium —> Right ventricle —> Lungs —> Left atrium —> Left ventricle —> Body (2) Right ventricle —> Right atrium —> Lungs —> Left atrium —> Left ventricle —>Body (3) Left atrium —> Left ventricle —> Lungs —> Right atrium —> Right ventricle —> Body (4) Left ventricle —> Left atrium —> Lungs —> Right atrium —> Right ventricle —> Body 26. Of the following which plant hormone inhibits growth ? (1) Cytokinins (2) Gibberelins (3) Auxins (4) Abscisic acid 27. Where are reflex arcs formed ? (1) Brain (2) Spinal chord (3) Muscle (4) Skin 28. Two individuals produced from a single zygote are : (1) Two girls looking similar (2) Two girls not looking similar (3) Two boys not looking similar (4) One boy and one girl not looking similar 29 Of the following cross-pollination does not take place due to (1) Wind (2) Water (3) Light (4) Animals 30. In hybrid cross the phenotypic ratio for F2 generation is : (1) 1:3 (2) 3 : 1 (3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 2 : 1 : 1 31. Which is not a vestigial organ in human body ? (1) Tail-bone (2) Ear Muscle (3) Inertial (4) Nail 32 .............................................is a man-made source of air pollution. (1) Desert (2) Farming (3) Dust storms (4) Volcanic eruptions 33 .......................................can replace wood in cement bonded particle board. (1) Rice straw (2) Glass (3) Wheat straw (4) Paper

27

Eur ka 34. Of the following which is a greenhouse gas ? (1) Nitrogen. dioxide (2) Sulphur dioxide (3) Carbon dioxide (4) Carbon monoxide 35. Every trophic level transfers.................................of its energy to the next level, (1) 0.1% (2) 1% (3) 10% (4) 100% 36. "One nation, one voice, one leader and one flag", which person of the following proclaimed the above slogan ? (1) Mussolini (2) Hitler (3) Kemal Pasha (4) Napoleon Bonaparte 37. Find out the statement which does not cause to Imperialism : (1) Prosperity of Asia and Africa (2) Weakness of Asian and African Nations (3) Need of raw material from Asia and Africa (4) Growing agitation in Nationalistic movement in African and Asian continent 38. "Without Rousseau, the French Revolution would not have taken place", proclaimed by : (1) Napoleon Bonaparte (2) Mirabo (3) Robespierre (4) Callone 39. The person shown in picture is related to which incident ? (1) Diplomatic Groupism in Europe (2) The assassination of Francis Ferdinand (3) Rebuilt and repaired the Keil canal (4) 14 points.scheme had planned ACADEMY FOR EXCELLENCE

40. Arrange the following events in chronological order : (I) Warsaw Treaty (II) SEATO Treaty (III) Paris Summit (IV) NATO Treaty (1) (IV), (I), (II), (III) (2) (IV), (II), (1), (111) (3) (III), (IV), (I), (II) (4) (III), (II), (I), (IV) 41. Which tax on salt was to be paid by the French people ? ' (1) Crown tax (2) Tally (3) Wainstam' (4) Gabble 42. The French were defeated due to diplomacy of.........................................in Second Karnatic War between the British and the French. (1) Robert Clive (2) Lord Dalhousie (3) Lord Ripon (4) Lord Wellesley 43. Who is considered to be first communist revolutionary in the World ? (1) Kurensky (2) Kar Marx (3) Lenin (4) Trotski 44. Which one is incorrect pair about the computer peripherals ? (1) Input Devices — Web Camera (2) Output Devices — Printer (3) Communication Devices — Network Adaptor Card (4) Storage Devices — Touch Screen 28

Eur ka


45. From which movement Ras Behari Bose got inspiration to establish Azad Hind Sena ? (1) The Civil Disobedience Movement (2) Quit India Movement (3) Home Rule Movement (4) The Non-co-operation Movement 46. Which is the correct order of districts of Maharashtra from East to West ? (1) Chandrapur —> Amravati —> Aurangabad —> Nasik (2) Nasik —> Aurangabad —> Amravati —> Chandrapur (3) Aurangabad —> Amravati —> Nasik —> Chandrapur (4) Chandrapur —> Amravati —> Nasik —> Aurangabad 47 .............................................soil is known as regur. (1) Laterite (2) Red (3) Black (4) Brown 48. In the given map of India, the shaded portion shows : (1) Northern plain region (2) Southern plateau region (3) Coastal region (4) Coastal region and Ghat region 49. Which group has correct matching, choose the correct answer from the codes given below : Group 'A' (A) Tea' (B) Pineapple (C) Betel nut (D) Mulberry

Group 'B' (I) Tripura (II) Manipur (III) Meghalaya (IV) Assam

Codes : (1) (A) - (I) (2) (A) - (IV) (3) (A) - (II) (4) (A) - (III)

(B) - (II) (C) - (III) (D) - (IV) (B) - (III) (C) - (I) (D) - (II) (B) - (III) (C) - (IV) (D) - (I) (B)- (IV) (C) - (II) (D) - (I)

50. The cold desert in Himalaya is : (1) Karakoram range (2) Ladakh range (3) Kailas range (4) Siwalik range 51. Which of the following is a famous place associated with Mahabharat from 1 Punjab-Haryana plain ? (1) Amritsar (2) Gurudaspur (3) Kurukshetra (4) Panipat 52. Which alphabet represents gulf in the given map of India ? (1) A (2) B (3) C

29

(4) D

53. In India, the state celebrates Bihu festival is : (1) West Bengal (2) Bihar (3) Assam (4) Rajasthan 54. The temple shown below is located in which state ?

55. 56. 57.

58.

Eur ka


(1) Andhra Pradesh (2) Tamil Nadu (3) Kerala (4) Karnataka The river Bhagirathi originates at : (1) Man Sarovar (2) Dev Prayag (3) Gangotri (4) Yamunotri After partition how many were there in Indian Constitution ? (1) 399 (2) 389 (3) 299 (4) 289 In which form of the democracy people could directly rule over themselves from the following given alternatives ? (1) Direct democracy (2) Parliamentary democracy (3) Presidential democracy (4) Indirect democracy Find out the person from the picture and mention to which work he is related ? (1) Voting Rights of Women (2) Status of women in law council (3) Caste system is alike a hierarchy he exclaimed (4) Eradication of caste inequality

59. According to "one person one vote" principle, where do we see equality in our country with regards to the following domain ? (1) Economic (2) Political (3) Social (4) Cultural 60. He/She can be called back with the written request of specific number of voters, which country is adopted this method ? (1) Australia (2) Fiji (3) United Arab Emirates (4) Switzerland 61. Which of the following is elected by direct voting ? (1) President (2) Member of Lok Sabha (3) Member of Rajya Sabha (4) Member of Vidhan Parishad 62. Which one of the following countries is not banned political parties ? (1) Qatar (2) America (3) Oman (4) United Arab Emirates 63. In Asia and Africa continents women in legislatures is.............percent. (1) 40 (2) 20 (3) 16.5 (4) 4.9

30

Eur ka


64. .......................................means accepting that opinions of others can be different from, one's own opinion and so allowing other opinions to be expressed. (1) Tolerance (2) Vigilance (3) Equality (4) Unity 65. Which one of the following is not a national party ? (1) Indian National Congress (2) Nationalist Congress Party (3) Trunmul Congress (4) Bahujan Samaj Party 66. Which of the following is not a feature of human wants ? (1) Wants are complementary (2) Wants are competitive (3) Wants are limited (4) Wants are variable 67. When did the 'Consumer Protection Act' come into force ? (1) 1st June, 1986 (2) 1st July, 1989 (3) 1st June, 1988 (4) 1st July, 1987 68. How does inflation affect saving and capital formation? (1) Decreases (2) Increases (3) Stabilizes (4) Expands 69. Hoarding of goods is a/an : (1) Effect of inflation (2) Cause of inflation (3) Effect of production (4) Effect of distribution 70. Which of the following statements is itot applicable to the capitalist economic system ? (1) Economic system is based on large production (2) Means of production are owned by Government (3) Economic system is based on huge exchange (4) Only to get maximum profit is the objective 71. If  +  = 3 and 3 + 3 = 9, find the quadratic equation whose roots are  and  : 2 (1) x(x - 2) = 3 (2) x + ---- + 3 = 0 x 2 (3) x2 - 2x + 3 = 0 (4) x + ---- = 3 x 72. What type of graphs of the equation x + y = 5 and x - y = 1 will be ? (1) Parallel lines (2) Intersecting lines (3) Lines coincide (4) Concurrent lines 73. Find the incorrect formula from the following :

31

Eur ka


74. In a 400 m running race, there are 'n' competitors and they are numbered at random. Find the probability that Sujata, numbered 12, will get 6th rank in the race ? n1 1 1 1 (4) (3) (1) (2) n n n1 6 75. A person got a job with a fixed salary and a certain yearly increment. After 2 years his salary was Rs. 10,000 and after 4 years it was Rs. 15,000. Find his salary after 10 years. (1) Rs. 32,500 (2) Rs. 27,500 (3) Rs. 27,250 (4) Rs. 30,000 76. Multiply :

77.

An obtuse angle of a rhombus is greater than twice the acute angle by 30° Find the measure of each angle. (1) 50° (2) 130° (3) 80° (4) 60°

78.

Find the sum of the cubes of the roots of the equation 3y2 - 14y + 8 = 0 (1) 1728 27

79

(2) 1736 27

(2) 1730 27

(2) 1732 27

Find the factors of the polynomial 8a3 + 27b3 + 64c3 - 72abc.

(1)

(2a + 3b + 4c) (4a2 + 9b2 + 16c2 - 6ab + 12bc - 8ac)

(2)

(2a + 3b + 4c) (4a + 9b + 16c + 6ab - 12bc + 8ac)

(3)

(2a + 3b + 4c) (4a2 + 9b2 + 16c2 - 6ab - 12bc - 8ac)

(4)

(2a + 3b + 4c) (4a2 + 9b2 + 16c2 - 6ab - 12bc + 8ac)

80.

2

2

2

A class there are 60 students. The following pie diagram shows the number of students according to blood-group. There are 8 students having lipod-group A, 18 students having blood-group 'O'. Students having 'B' group are represented by 120°. Find the number of students having 'AB' blood-group. (1) 14

(2) 16 (3) 18

32

(4) 20

Eur ka


81.

Which of the following hedrons have only three rectangular faces ? (1) Right circular cylinder (2) Triangular prism (3) Prism with square base (4) Triangular pyramid In the figure given below, point D is on side BC of  ABC such that  ABC =  DAG. If AB = 9, AD = 4, AC = 5, then A ( DC) :  ( BAC) =

82.

A 0

(1) 81 : 16

(2) 9 : 4

(3) 4 : 9 (4) 16 : 81

0

B

D

C

83. The angle of elevation and the angle of depression are 30° and 60° respective when seen from the top of the first building to the top and base of the second building. If the distance between the bases of two building is 1.2 m, then fid the height of big building. (1) 163 m

(2) 123 m (3) 143 m (4) 203 m

84. The equations of line AB and line PQ are y = -½ x and x = 2y respectively. Find the measure of angle BOQ which is formed by intersection of line AB and line PQ. (Point P and point A are in first and second quadrant respectively) (1) 60°

(2) 150°

(3) 90°

(4) 120°

85. The area of triangle formed by ing the centres of three congruent externally touching circles, is 493 sq-cm, then find the radius of circle. (1) 7 cm

(2) 7 cm (3) 73 cm (4) 43 cm

86. If the angle bisectors of  DAB and  CBA of any quadrilateral intersects at the Point P, then find 2mAPB : D

ABCD

C

(1)  C + D (2)  C + B (3)  A + B (4)  A + D

P

B

A

B

87. C

A

In figure, for ABC, chord AB,  chord BC, ABC = 72° and the angle bisector of ABC intersects the circle in Point D, then what is the measure of angle  BEA ?

D

(1) 100°

(2) 36° 33

(3) 18°

(4) 34°

Eur ka


88. What is the value of sin2 0 + sin2 1 + sin2 2 + .............. +sin2 90 ? 89 91 (4) 2 2 89. In trapezium PQRS, seg PQ  seg SR. Diagonal PR and diagonal QS intersects each other at point O. If PO = x + 4; QO = x + 2; RO = x + 10 and SO = x + 7, then PQ : RS = ? (1) 0

(2) 45

P

(3)

Q

O

S

(1) 3:2

(2) 2 : 3

(3) 4 : 9

(4) 9 : 4

R

90. One solid hemisphere melted into solid sphere, then what is the ratio of radius of solid sphere to radius of solid hemisphere ? (1) 32 : 1 (2) 8 : 1 (3) 1 : 39 (4) 1 : 8 LANGUAGE TESTING ENGLISH Directions (Q. Nos. 1-4) : Read the age and answer the questions given below it : A large number of people are consuming packaged food because it has become a matter of convenience, pleases the taste buds and feels your stomach. Also, it is important to note the quality of packaging used for these products and whether additives are used or not to increase their shelf-life. For example, dairy products like milk that come tetra packs come without any additive and due to no with air, it remains fresh for a long period of time. The ready-to-eat food products are specially laden With preservatives and can have excess oil in form of trans fats, which can be a threat to health. I don't really advocate bakery products whether they are packaged or not. The problem with canned or processed food is that they have excessive salt or sugar. Cooking at home is always a healthy option. For example, even simply eating dal-chawal is far healthier option over junk food. What one needs to do is a little bit of time management and planning. We should stick to those food items that we are genetically used to such as Indian food cooked by traditional methods. 1. Why are more and more people, consuming packaged food ? It is because................................. (1) it is cheap (2) it is convenient, tasty and fulfilling (3) it is time consuming (4) it is good for health 2. Ready to eat products are laden with......................... (1) Proteins (2) Vitamins (3) Minerals (4) Preservatives 34

Eur ka


3. Why do you think cooking at home is a healthier option ? It is because.......... (1) it does not contain preservatives or excess salt or sugar (2) it helps in time management and planning (3) it pleases the taste buds and fills the stomach (4) it is genetically good 4. Shelf-life of a product indicates........................ (1) place where it can be kept (2) its expiry date (3) length of time a product can be kept in a shop (4) its date of packaging Directions (Q. Nos. 5-8) : Read the age and answer the questions given below it : The menace of plastic in the state truly came to the fore when thin plastic bags choked the drains and caused water logging during the 2005 floods in Mumbai. In the aftermath of the incident, the government proposed a complete ban on plastics but later decided to ban only bags of thickness less than 50 microns. Plastic degrades slowly which means it remains in the environment for a long time and is known to release toxic substances. However, it may be a long time before plastic is completely banned in the state due to its widespread utility. But the anti-plastic movement is gaining stream in cities such as Mumbai, Pune and Nagpur where 'Say no to plastic' campaigns have led to various citizens carrying cloth or paper bags for grocery and general shopping, while at the policy level, Mahabaleshwar recently issued a blanket ban on plastic usage in the hill station. 5. What was a major cause of the Mumbai floods of 2005 ? (1) There was heavy, incessant rain for many days (2) Thin plastic bags had choked the drains and caused water logging (3) The rivers had too much of water (4) All the above reasons 6. Mahabaleshwar has recently issued a blanket ban on : (1) policies against use of plastic (2) widespread anti-plastic bag campaign (3) plastic usage in the hill station (4) citizens carrying cloth or paper bag 7. Why is plastic harmful for the environment ? (1) It degrades slowly and releases toxic, substances (2) It causes choking of drains (3) It leads to flood-like conditions (4) It causes waterlogging 8. A toxic substance is one which is............................... (1) non-poisonous (2) poisonous (3) harmful (4) fatal

35

Eur ka


Directions (Q. Nos. 9-12) : Read the age and answer the questions given below it : Toy guns are not an option. Tejaswini, 29, used to do some 22 shooting as an NCC cadet in Kolhapur but when she wanted to turn professional, she realized she had no access to equipment and no means to acquire her own. In 1999, a coach, Jaisingh Kusale, spotted potential in Tejaswini and loaned her a 10-metre air rifle. Just as things were looking up, the coach ed away and the rifle was sent away with his other belongings. "I had an 18-month break in my shooting career as I had no access to a rifle," she recounts. "I had to make do with borrowed rifles and, on one occasion,-even lost out in the trial for the National Games on of a bad rifle." 9. What problems did Tejaswini encounter when she decided to turn professional ? (1) She was opposed by her parents. (2) She did not get proper coaching. (3) She had no access to equipment and could not acquire it. (4) She had to borrow rifles. 10. Why was she compelled to have a break of 18 months in her career ? (1) Her coach ed away. (2) She had no access to a rifle. (3) His rifle was sent away with his belongings. (4) Her training was inadequate. 11. To make do with means........................ (1) adjust (2) accommodate (3) tolerate (4) refuse 12. She lost in the trial for National Games because of..................... (1) bad shooting (2) bad rifle (3) match fixing (4) inadequate equipment Directions (Q. Nos. 13 and 14) : The following five sentences form a paragraph. The first and last sentenc are given. Choose the order in which the three sentences (PQR) should appe to complete the paragraph : 13. S1 In 1925, a disease destroyed the crops in one village. S2 ........................................................................................................... S3 ........................................................................................................... S4 ........................................................................................................... S5 The children were very happy to be back with their parents. P Later the village people went back to retrieve their children. Q The people began to starve. R The chief decided to send the children of the village to live in a nea village. Options : (1) QRP (2) PQR (3) PRQ (4) RPQ 36

Eur ka


14. SI The month of Ramzaan is holy for the Muslims. S2 ............................................................................................................... S3 ............................................................................................................... S4 ................................................................................................................ S5 On the first day of the next month, ,Shawwal, Id-ul-Fitr is celebrated. P after sunset the fast is broken with fruits and food. Q during the day, they say prayers and read the Quran. R this month Muslims fast from dawn to dusk. Options : (1) QPR (2) RQP (3) RPQ (4) PRQ Directions (Q. Nos. 15 and 16) : The following questions have the second sentence missing. Choose the appropriate alternative to complete it. 15. A The ozone layer protects us from the harmful UV rays of the Sun. B ................................................................................................................ C The ozone layer is decreasing due to gases called chlorofluoro-carbons. (1) The ozone layer is a thin layer. (2) The UV rays cause skin cancer. (3) Other layers of atmosphere are stratosphere and troposphere (4) The Sun also gives us heat. 16. A Children were enjoying the dance festival. B ................................................................................................................ C The Kathak dance style was liked the most. (1) Good music was being played (2) The artist wore colourful costumes (3) It was the annual school festival (4) Various styles of dance were being performed on stage. Directions (Q. Nos. 17-21) : Choose the correct word and fill in the blank : 17. A music festival was being held in the............................... (1) Stadium (2) Stage (3) Auditorium (4) Emporium 18. One who is brilliant is called a.......................................... (1) Generous (2) Genial (3) Cordial (4) Genius 19. People gave..............................reports of the accident. (1) ghostly (2) harmful (3) ghastly (4) dangerous 20. The class................................elected the monitor. (1) unison (2) together (3) united (4) unanimously 21. City................................ have to face traffic jams frequently. (1) dwellers (2) dealers (3) livers (4) man 37

Eur ka


Directions (Q. Nos. 22-25) : Choose the correct meaning of the idioms and phrases : 22. A close shave : (1) Something done badly (2) Clean shave (3) A narrow escape (4) Bad outfit 23. To get into rows : (1) to arrange in a line (2) to present neatly (3) to get into a boat (4) to quarrel 24. To look upto : (1) to watch carefully (2) to respect someone (3) to search for something (4) to pay attention to 25. To be on cloud nine : (1) to die (2) to win a prize (3) to be very happy (4) to be unsure Directions (Q. Nos. 26-33) : In the following age, there are some numbered blanks. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from the given options : Legends will tell you that Flamingoes (26).........................not ordinary visitors to Kutch. They were the honoured guests of king Lakho and he (27)............ the hunting of Flamingoes that (28).................................to Kutch from various parts of the world. For centuries the region (29)......................................a haven (30)..........................this migratory bird. Flamingo City, an island in the middle of the Rann of Kutch, (31)...............................the world over as the biggest breeding grounds of the flamingo, (32).........................with bodies of hundreds of flamingo chicks. The parents of these chicks (33).........................the island due to lack of food. 26 (1) is (2) are (3) have been (4) have 27. (1) has forbidden (2) forbade (3) forbidden (4) was forbidding 28. (1) comes (2) are coming (3) came (4) come 29. (1) has been (2) was (3) have been (4) is 30. (1) with (2) for (3) in (4) under 31. (1) knows (2) was known (3) are known (4) known 32. (1) is strewn (2) are strewn (3) strewn (4) has strewn 33. (1) fled (2) have fled (3) has fled (4) are fled Directions (Q. Nos. 34-37) : Choose the appropriate word and fill in the blanks : 34. The children were.....................by the sound of gunfire. (1) terror (2) terrified (3) terrible (4) terrific 35. I am...........................than my elder brother. (1) youngest (2) young (3) most young (4) younger 38

Eur ka


36. ................................use of water will help us conserve it. (1) Judgmental (2) Judiciary (3) Judicious (4) Judiciously 37. The science project was presented...................... (1) effect (2) effectively (3) affect (4) effective (Q. Nos. 38-40) : Choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word 38. Elaborate : (1) decorative (2) short (3) brief (3) detailed 39. Alike : (1) different (2) similar (3) distinct (4) unique 40. Ferocious : (1) hungry (2) violent (3) dangerous (4) mild

39

ANSWER KEY NTSE STAGE - 1 MAT

SAT

40

Language Test (LT)

Eur ka


S.S.C RESULT 2013 st

in MIRA BHAYANDAR in SARASWATI VIDYALAYA

95.82%

Drashti Bhalala

st

in MIRA ROAD in SARDAR PATEL (SVP)

95.64%

Karan Jha st

in ST. FRANCIS

nd

Shrooti Verma

2 in BHAYANDAR 95.45%

They are 1st, 2nd & 3rd Highest in Entire Bhayandar & Mira Road 41

Eur ka


1ST RANKERS IN SCHOOL 95.82% DRASHTI B.

1st in SARASWATI

95.64%

95.45%

KARAN JHA

SHROOTI V.

1st Rank in SARDAR PATEL

1st Rank in ST. FRANCIS

93.45%

92.55%

ANAND P.

MANSI S.

1st Rank in MOTHER MARY

1st Rank in QUEEN MARY

92.18%

92.18%

ARCHANA MOURYA

DEEPAK SHINDE

1st Rank in OXFORD

1st Rank in JESUS MARY

92.18%

90.00%

SWAPNA BHATT

MAHINDER C.

1st Rank in JESUS MARY

1st Rank in GOLDEN NEST

42

EUREKA'S CLUB 90 Eur ka S.S.C. Results 2013 50 STUDENTS GOT +90%


95.82% Drashti Bhalala 1st Rank in Saraswati

93.27% Omkar Gawas St Francis

92.36% Archana Mourya 1st Rank Oxford

91.82% Haani Nathwala N.H

91.09% Aakansha Pandey St Alloysius

95.64% Karan Jha 1st Rank in SVPV

95.45% Shrooti Verma 1st Rank in St Francis

93.09% Kedar Khedekar Mother Mary

92.91% Bhagyashree Saraf St Francis

92.18% Deepak Shinde 1st Rank Jesus Mary

92.18% Swapna Bhatt 1st Rank Jesus Mary

91.64% Preeti Dhupiya St Francis

91.64% Sahil Surve Mother Mary

91.09% Simran Sharma St Alloysius

91.09% Sonam Jha SVPV

43

93.64% Saurav Bhowmik St Francis

92.55% Mansi Sawant 1st Rank Queens Mary

92.18% Sumit Gupta OLN

91.64% Aksah Johnson HCC

91.09% Vinita Warang N.H

93.45% Anand P. 1st Rank Mother Mary

92.36% Archana Shetty St Francis

92.18% Sahil Bhat 2nd in St.xaviers

91.27% Varun Shah St Francis

91.09% Sachin Nair 2nd in Q.M

EUREKA'S CLUB 90 S.S.C. Results 2013

90.73%

90.73%

90.73%

Prachi Agarwal St Francis

Sugandhita M. St Francis

Pratik Rajkotia St Francis

90.55% Himanshi Khetan St Francis

90.55% Shivani Mishra St Francis

90.55% Shubham Shah Saraswati

90.55% Poonam Jaju Porwal

Shivam Tiwari Mother Mary

90.18% Shruti S. St.francis

90.00% Gaurav Nawal St Francis

90.00% Shrishti Yadav Q.M.

90.18% Tuba Khan Royal Girl

90.18% Dhruvi Jain Q.M

90.00% Shreyash Shetty St Francis

90.00% Aditya Pandey Mother Mary

90.00% Damini Gupta St Francis

90.00% Shikha Mishra St Francis

44

90.36%

90.00% Mitali Jain St Francis

90.00% Piyusha B. SVPV

Eur ka


90.55% Nihal Shetty St Francis

90.36% Shubham Pardesi St Francis

90.00% Abhilasha Poliwal Mother Mary

90.00% Mahinder C. 1st Rank Golden Nest

90.00%

90.00%

Vaibhav Agarwal Mother Mary

Mussadiq Jakati N.H

Eur ka


89.45% Aakansha M St Francis

89.09% Umar Azmi N.H

88.36% Rishi Singh GN

88.00% Arth Shah St.Xaviers

87.27% Om Rajesh S. Q. M.

89.45% Mahima Nigam St Francis

88.91% Viraj Darji TSV

88.36% Kirtija Kathe Cosmo Po.

87.82% Aditya Maurya TSV

87.27% Priyanka C. GN

89.45%

89.45%

Shweta Das St Francis

Priyanka K. Mother Mary

88.80%

88.73%

Harsha Bagaria St Francis

Shivangi S. St Francis

88.20%

88.18% Hardik G. Porwal

Amita Panad Q. M.

87.82%

87.82% Sagar Sen Mother Mary

Mamta Suthar TSV

87.09%

87.09%

Shweta Jha TSV

Sakshi Jain Porwal

45


89.27% Shivani Sharma TSV

88.55% Khushali Jain Porwal

88.18% Shazia Iqbal St.xaviers

87.45% Meenakshi A. Holy Cross

87.09% Mukesh M. SVP

89.09% Mounish Shah D'Silva

88.36% Sanjana Nair St Francis

88.18% Vishal Lodhani GN

87.27% Jeevika Gupta St Francis

86.91% Pooja Kumavat TSV

Eur ka


86.91% Shaina Shaikh TSV

86.55% Nishita Mehta TSV

86.00% Tushar Churi Divine Image

85.64% Monish Pillai St Francis

84.91% Kiran Kunwar Mother Mary

86.91% Sheha G. Q. M.

86.55% Jinendra Jain Porwal

86.00% Anish Nair SVPV

85.64% Surabhi Koyilot Mother Mary

84.91% Surbhi Jajodia Father Joseph

86.73%

86.73% Dimple Poddar Mother Mary

Akshita C. St Francis

86.36%

86.36% Aarti Khetan Holy Cross(W)

Sahil Acharekar St Francis

86.00%

86.00%

Monika Singhal Mother Mary

Akshay Rathod St Francis

85.64%

85.45%

Tejas Ghag SVPV

Athira Azad St Francis

84.91%

84.91%

Namita Poddar St Francis

Abhishek S Mother Mary

46


86.73% Nitin Pal Mother Mary

86.36% Rishabh Pandey Mother Mary

85.82% Diksha Singh St Francis

85.09% Shubham Pathak GN

84.73% Vedika Bajaj Mother Mary

86.55% Namrata Singh Mother Mary

86.36% Sneha Singh St. Francis

85.64% Deepak Yadav St Francis

85.09% Chandanbala J. St Francis

84.73% Malay Doshi Q.M.

Eur ka


84.60% Neha Bhandare St Francis

Ratan Singh Q.M.

84.36% Yogesh Rajpurohit St Francis

84.00% Madhumita Das Mother Mary

84.00% Shraddha Tiwari St Alloysius

Justy Sherly St. Xaviers

83.64% Ashish Pramanick Holy Cross(W)

83.64%

83.64% Yash Gupta Mother Mary

83.64% Roshan Shetty Mother Mary

83.45%

83.40%

83.27%

Rakesh Jhawar TSV

Satyawan Dhuri St.Xaviers

Bhavesh Mishra St Francis

83.09%

83.09%

Khushboo Shah St.Francis

83.27% Akshay Tiwari SVPV

82.73% Rohan Belel St Francis

84.55%

83.00% Ranjeet Pal MM

82.73% Pranit Patil SVPV

84.00%

84.18% Nirav Kalsara St Francis


Laxminarayan Modi Arindam Ghoshal St Alloysius St Francis

82.60% 82.55% Rutvi Shah Ankur Bhanushali Don Bosco St Francis

47

84.18% Nikhil Kawa TSV

84.18% Khushboo Shaikh Blossom

84.00% 84.00% Chirag Patidar Tanvi Lokegaonkar St Francis St Francis

82.91% Rishabh Mishra St Francis

82.55% Dhiraj Sawant TSV

82.91% Tanmay SVPV

82.55% Sristi Singh TSV


82.55% Saurabh Jha GN

82.36% Shakeela Mansuri Mother Mary

82.18%

Eur ka


82.18% Sudarshan Bagri St Francis

81.64% Shubhankar S. TSV

81.64% Deepali Otia N.H.

81.27% Suman Mondal St Francis

81.27% Siddhesh Jha St Francis

81.27% Rahul Singh RK Memorial

81.09% Chetan H. SVPV

80.55%

Shreya Agarwal St Francis

81.64% Haris Quazi N.H.

81.27% Sumit Mondal St Francis

80.70% Saba Mulla N.H.

Abhishek Mishra TSV

Akshay Kadam ST.PAUL'S

80.55% Simran Budia St Francis

Namrata Saraf St Francis

Shraddha M. Q.M.

80.00% Amol Mahadik Mother Mary

80.00% Rajlaxmi M. Mother Mary

80.00% Reema Acharya Mother Mary

80.00% Soumein Guchait Mother Mary

80.00% Sumit Avinash Mother Mary

80.18% Ashika Kanchan St Francis

80.55%

80.00% Shweta Mishra St.xaviers

80.00% Shraddha M. N.H

48

80.20%

80.00% Ronit Palai St Francis

80.18%

Maths Olympiad 61191x

Overview 26281t

More details 6y5l6z

Related Documents 3h463d

Maths Olympiad 61191x

Maths Olympiad 61191x

Maths Olympiad Class 5 5q4t4r

Olympiad Maths Trainer 4 1i6t5d

Math 91123375 Maths Olympiad Advanced 1r2we

Olympiad-maths-trainer-1.pdf 554n5t