What Is Organizational Behavior _____ are individuals who get things done through other people. A. B. C. D.
Leaders Psychologist Organizations Managers
Which French industrialist said that a manager's functions consist of planning, organizing, commanding, coordinating, and controlling? A. B. C. D.
Henri Fayol Henry Mintzberg Fred Luthans Herb Kelleher
Through the _____ function, managers monitor the performance of the organization and significant deviations. A. B. C. D.
Organizing Planning Leading Controlling
_____ is a field of study that investigates the impact that individuals, groups, and structure have on behavior within organizations. A. B. C. D.
Psychology Organizational behavior Sociology Leadership
is a science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behaviour of humans and other animals. A. B. C. D.
Anthropology Social psychology Sociology Psychology
Productivity implies a concern for _____ and _____. A. B. C. D.
Efficiency, effectiveness Customer service, quality control Customer service, efficiency Effectiveness, quality control
The four management functions include all of the following EXCEPT. A. B. C. D.
Controlling Planning Staffing Organizing
_____ studies behavior as it relates to concerns such as absenteeism, turnover, productivity, and performance A. B. C. D.
Psychology Kinetics Organizational behavior Ergonomics
According to the text, the best approach for obtaining knowledge about human behavior is_____. A. B. C. D.
Using common sense A n observational approach A theoretical approach A systematic approach
What behavioral science discipline has made the MOST significant contributions to understanding individual behavior? A. B. C. D.
Sociology Social psychology Psychology Anthropology
_____ has helped us understand differences in fundamental values, attitudes, and behavior between people in different countries. A. B. C. D.
Anthropology Psychology Social psychology Political science
The field of organizational behavior is most concerned with an organization's _____. A. B. C. D.
Responsiveness Efficiency Perception Effectiveness
"Intuition" is concerned with _____. A. B. C. D.
Gut feelings Systematic study scientific Analysis Predictive ability
_____ is a science that seeks to measure, explain, and sometimes change the behavior of humans and other animals. A. B. C. D.
Anthropology Social psychology Sociology Psychology
Which is not a contributing area to Organizational Behavior? A. B. C. D.
Anthropology Physiology Psychology Sociology
_____ is the study of societies to learn about human beings and their activities. A. B. C. D.
Sociology Social Psychology Anthropology Political Science
Foundations of Organization Structure Work specialization is also known as _____. A. B. C. D.
Span of control Chain of command Formalization Division of labour
_____ is the basis by which jobs are grouped together. A. B. C. D.
Formalization Specialization Departmentalization Chain of command
The _____ is an unbroken line of authority that extends from the top of the organization to the lowest level and clarifies who reports to whom. A. B. C. D.
Chain of command Span of control Formalization Organizational structure
_____ refers to the number of employees that can be directed by one manager. A. B. C. D.
Formalization Span of control Authority Centralization
Most small businesses are organized as _____. A. B. C. D.
Simple structures Matrix structures Virtual organizations Bureaucracies
The key concept that underlies all bureaucracies is _____. A. B. C. D.
Flexibility Decentralization Standardization Creativity
The _____ combines two forms of departmentalization: functional and product. A. B. C. D.
Simple structure Virtual organization Bureaucracy Matrix structure
Which of the following is an advantage of a matrix organization? A. B. C. D.
Clear organizational structure. Coordination of complex and interdependent activities. Elimination of power struggles. All of the above.
A _____ relies primarily on outsourcing. A. B. C. D.
Team structure Boundaryless organization Virtual organization Strategic alliance
The _____ model has extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information network, and little participation by low-level in decision making. A. B. C. D.
Mechanistic Strategy Organic Routine
A(n) _____ organization uses flat, cross-hierarchal and cross-functional teams, has low formalization, possesses a comprehensive information network, and involves high participation in decision making. A. B. C. D.
Mechanistic Strategy Organic Routine
Organizations that pursue a cost-minimization strategy are more likely to choose a(n) _____ structure. A. B. C. D.
Functional Mechanistic Departmentalized Organic
_____ refers to how a firm converts its inputs to outputs. A. B. C. D.
Environment Structure Routine Technology
_____ is the degree to which an environment can growth. A. B. C. D.
Instability Complexity Capacity Volatility
_____ defines how job tasks are formally divided, grouped, and coordinated. A. B. C. D.
Chain of command Span of control Centralization Organizational structure
Division of labour is also known as _____. A. B. C. D.
Span of control Departmentalization Work specialization Formalization
Which of the following is true regarding specialization? A. Less time is spent in changing tasks. B. It's easier and less costly to find and train workers to do specific and repetitive tasks. C. Employee skills tasks at performing tasks increases through repetition. D. Training for specialization is less efficient.
_____ is the basis by which jobs are grouped together. A. B. C. D.
Compartmentalization Structured hierarchy Departmentalization Specialization
The _____ is an unbroken line of authority running from the top to the bottom of the organization. A. B. C. D.
Chain of command Span of control Hierarchical line Vertical structure
_____ refers to the rights inherent in a managerial position to give orders and expect the orders to be obeyed. A. B. C. D.
Unity of command Authority Bureaucratic control Formalization
_____, to a large degree, determines the number of levels and managers an organization has. A. B. C. D.
Hierarchy Authority Formalization Span of control
_____ refers to the degree to which decision making is concentrated at a single point in the organization. A. Decentralization B. Formalization C. Centralization
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a simple structure? A. B. C. D.
Wide spans of control Low degree of departmentalization Authority centralized in a single person Highly formalized rules and regulations
The simple structure is most widely practiced in _____. A. B. C. D.
Mid-range size businesses Large corporations Small businesses International organizations
A _____ is characterized by highly routine operating tasks, very formalized rules, and tasks that are grouped into functional departments. A. B. C. D.
Virtual organization Bureaucracy Boundaryless organization Team structure
As size increases, decision making typically _____. A. B. C. D.
Becomes more efficient Moves through fewer organizational levels Becomes slower Becomes more effective
Typically, a matrix structure combines _____ departmentalization. A. B. C. D.
Customer and geographic Geographic and process Functional and process Functional and product
A matrix structure violates that _____ concept. A. B. C. D.
Span of control Unity-of-command Centralization Contingency
In a _____ organization, a small, core organization outsources major business functions. A. B. C. D.
Vertical Virtual Boundaryless Team
Virtual organizations are highly _____, with little or no _____. A. B. C. D.
Centralized, departmentalization Formalized, centralization Departmentalized, formalization Decentralized, departmentalization
The boundaryless organization is also known as the _____. A. B. C. D.
Network organization Cultural structure T-form Modular organization
In a mechanistic organization, communication is _____. A. B. C. D.
Mostly upward Both upward and lateral Mostly downward Both lateral and downward
_____ structures include cross-hierarchical and cross-functional teams and a flat structure. A. B. C. D.
Mechanistic Hybrid Routine Organic
Innovation, cost minimization, and imitation are examples of _____. A. B. C. D.
Corporate models Formalization Environments Strategy
_____ need the flexibility of an organic structure, while _____ seek the efficiency and stability of a mechanistic structure. A. B. C. D.
Innovators, cost minimisers Cost minimisers, imitators Imitators, innovators Innovators, imitators
Size affects structure _____. A. B. C. D.
At an increasing rate At a decreasing rate At a stable rate At an intermittent rate
Routine technology is accompanied by decentralization when _____. A. B. C. D.
When formalization is low When formalization is high When the company is organized by customer When tasks are routine
The greatest degree of uncertainty is faced by organizations that are _____. A. B. C. D.
Robust, complex, and dynamic Stable, complex, and scarce Dynamic, stable, and robust Scarce, dynamic, and complex
_____ refers to the degree of heterogeneity and concentration among environmental elements. A. B. C. D.
Volatility Complexity Dynamism None of the above
Work specialization is associated with _____. A. B. C. D.
Lower employee productivity and lower satisfaction Higher employee productivity and higher satisfaction Lower employee productivity and higher satisfaction Higher employee productivity and lower satisfaction
The ____ is characterized by highly routine operating tasks achieved through specialization. A. B. C. D.
Matrix organization Bureaucracy Simple structure Team structure
The ____ violates the unity-of-command concept. A. B. C. D.
Simple structure Bureaucracy Matrix structure Virtual organization
The ____ is also called the network or modular organization. A. B. C. D.
Virtual organization Team structure Matrix Bureaucracy
The boundaryless organization relies heavily on _____ A. B. C. D.
Information technology Vertical boundaries Horizontal boundaries External boundaries
The _____ is a structure characterized by extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information network, and centralization. A. B. C. D.
Mechanistic model Organic model Technology model Boundaryless organization
Which of the following is NOT a determinant of an organization's structure? A. B. C. D.
Strategy Organization size Industry Technology
Changes in corporate strategy precede and lead to _____. A. B. C. D.
Changes in the environment Better communication Increased productivity Changes in an organization's structure
Which of the following generalizations about organizational structures and employee performance and satisfaction is MOST true?
A. There is fairly strong evidence linking decentralization and job satisfaction. B. There is no evidence that s a relationship between span of control and employee performance. C. No one wants work that makes minimal intellectual demands and is routine.
The unbroken line of authority that extends from top of the organization to the lowest echelon is termed the chain of command. A. True B. False
Narrow spans of control encourage overly tight supervision and discourage employee autonomy. A. True B. False
A major weakness of the bureaucracy is lack of attention to rules. A. True B. False
The major disadvantages of the matrix structure lie in the confusion it creates, its propensity to foster power struggles, and the stress it places on individuals. A. True B. False
The major advantage to the virtual organization is its flexibility. A. True B. False
Status and rank are minimized in the boundaryless organization. A. True B. False
The organic structure is characterized by extensive departmentalization, high formalization, a limited information network, and centralization. A. True B. False
Adding 500 employees to an organization that has only 300 is likely to result in a shift towards a more organic structure. A. True B. False
The more scarce, dynamic, and complex the environment, the more organic a structure should be. A. True B. False
Research s the notion that employees prefer an organic structure. A. True B. False
Personality And Values _____ is the sum total of ways in which an individual reacts to and interacts with others. A. B. C. D.
Moods Values Personality Attitudes
_____ refers to those factors that were determined at conception. A. B. C. D.
Temperament Heredity Environment Situation
_____ are enduring characteristics that describe an individual's behavior. A. B. C. D.
Personality traits Individual dimensions Value systems Terminal values
The _____ is the most popular typology of personality traits. A. B. C. D.
Hofstede Cultural Profile Holland Code Big Five Model Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
_____is the degree to which individuals like or dislike themselves, whether they see themselves as capable and effective, and whether they feel they are in control of their environment. A. B. C. D.
Emotional bias Machiavellianism Job satisfaction Core self-evaluation
_____ is the tendency to be pragmatic, emotionally distant, and exploitative. A. B. C. D.
Emotionally maturity Low self-esteem High self-esteem Machiavellianism
_____ refers to the tendency to be arrogant, have a grandiose sense of self-importance, require excessive self-iration, and have a sense of entitlement. A. B. C. D.
Narcissism Job involvement Organizational commitment External locus of control
An individual who is able to adjust his/her behavior to external factors is a high _____. A. B. C. D.
Machiavellianism locus of control Type A self-monitor
Those who have a _____ personality are perpetually involved in a struggle to do more and more activities in less time. A. B. C. D.
Self-monitor Type A Type B Machiavellian
The value attribute that specifies importance is known as ____. A. B. C. D.
Mode of conduct End state Intensity Freedom
Is most often described in of measurable traits that a person exhibits. A. B. C. D.
Organization Tolerance Personality Value
Which of the following best describes heredity? A. B. C. D.
Situational determinants at work Environment factors Factors that were determined at conception Personality traits that develop with age
The _____ type of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator prefers routine and order. A. B. C. D.
Perceiving Intuitive Extroverted Sensing
The _____ type of the Myers-Briggs Type Indicator relies on personal values and emotions. A. B. C. D.
Judging Intoitive Feeling Sensing
______ types, according to the MBTI typology, want control and prefer their world to be ordered and structured. A. B. C. D.
Perceiving Judging Sensing Intuitive
Which personality dimension is measured in both the MTBI and the Big Five model? A. B. C. D.
Emotional stability Conscientiousness Agreeableness Extroversion
The _____ dimension of the Big Five Model refers to an individual's propensity to defer to others. A. B. C. D.
Extroversion Agreeableness Conscientiousness Openness to experience
Which of the Big Five dimensions has shown a strong and consistent relationship with job performance? A. B. C. D.
Extrovrsion Agreeableness Consientiousness Openness to experience
Machiavellianism, self-esteem, self-monitoring, propensity for risk taking, and Type A are all examples of _____. A. B. C. D.
Personality attributes Compensable skills Genetically heritable traits Core competencies
Individuals with _____ core self-evaluations tend to dislike themselves, question their capabilities, and view themselves as powerless over their environment. A. B. C. D.
Internal Positive Negative External
Which is not true of a high Mach? A. B. C. D.
He/she manipulates less. He/she wins more. He/she is persuaded less. He/she persuades others more.
When do high Machs flourish?
A. When they interact face to face with others rather than indirectly. B. When the situation has a minimum number of rules and regulations. C. All of the above
A study found that while _____ thought that they were better leaders than their colleagues, their supervisors actually rated them as worse leaders. A. B. C. D.
Self-monitors Risk takers Machiavellians Narcissists
Which is NOT true of high self-monitors?
A. He/she adjusts his or her behaviour to external factors. B. He/she is highly sensitive to external cues. C. He/she tends to display true emotions.
_____ behavior may lead to more effective performance for a share trader in a brokerage firm. A. B. C. D.
Low risk-taking High risk-taking Risk-averse Multi-risk
_____ personalities strive to do two or more things at once. A. B. C. D.
Type B Aggressive Protocol Type A
_____ personalities tend to play for fun and relaxation, rather than to exhibit superiority. A. B. C. D.
Type B Aggressive Prosaic Type A
A _____ personality type takes the initiative to improve its circumstances. A. B. C. D.
Machiavellian Entrepreneurial Prosaic proactive
According to the Myers-Briggs type Indicator, people who are classified as _____ are conceptualizers. A. B. C. D.
INTJs ESTJs ENTPs MBTIs
Which dimension of the Big Five model refers to an individual's propensity to defer to others? A. B. C. D.
Extroversion Openness to experience Emotional stability Agreeableness
Individuals with a positive _____ like themselves, see themselves as effective, capable, and in control of their environment. A. Narcissism B. Propensity C. Core self-evaluations
Individuals who are high in the _____ dimension of personality manipulate more, win more, are persuaded less, and persuade others more. A. Rokeach B. Aesthetic C. Machiavellianism
If personality characteristics were completely dictated by heredity, they would be fixed at birth and no amount of experience could alter them. A. True B. False
A substantial body of research s the MBTI as a valid measure of personality. A. True B. False
Extroverts tend to be reserved, timid, and quiet. A. True B. False
The opposite of emotional stability is neuroticism. A. True B. False
Compared to introverts, extroverts tend to be happier in their jobs and lives as a whole. A. True B. False
Terminal values are preferable modes of behaviour, or means of achieving one's instrumental values. A. True B. False
The lives of Xers have been shaped by globalization, MTV, AIDS, and computers. A. True B. False
Organizations in a society low in uncertainty avoidance are likely to have more formal rules. A. True B. False
Individuals with Holland's investigative personality are well suited for careers as small business managers. A. True B. False
Motivation Concepts _____ is the processes that for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal. A. B. C. D.
Perception Cooperation Motivation Affect
Which is NOT a dimension in Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs? A. B. C. D.
Ego Physiological Safety Esteem
_____ theory is an extension of Maslow's hierarchy of needs. A. B. C. D.
Two-factor Theory Y Theory X ERG
Which of the following comments was made by a Theory X manager? A. B. C. D.
Employees dislike work. Employees will exercise discretion. The average person will seek responsibility. Employees can view work as natural as rest or play.
Which of the following is a motivational factor, according to Herzberg's two-factor theory? A. B. C. D.
Quality of supervisions Recognition Pay Relations with others
According to Edwin Locke, _____ goals produce the greatest degree of achievement. A. Ambiguous and difficult B. Specific and difficult C. Specific and easy
_____ programs emphasize participative set goals that are tangible, verifiable, and measurable. A. B. C. D.
Self-efficacy Management by objectives Reinforcement Organizational
_____ is also known as social cognitive theory or social learning theory. A. B. C. D.
Self-efficacy Reinforcement Goal-setting Cognitive evaluation
The _____ effect is a form of self-fulfilling prophecy where believing something to be true can make it true. A. B. C. D.
Archimedes Galatia Icarus Pygmalion
_____ theory argues that behaviour is a function of its consequences. A. B. C. D.
Equity Reinforcement Goal-setting Expectancy
_____ theory makes the assumption that people will compare their job inputs and outcomes with those of others and then respond to eliminate perceived inequities. A. B. C. D.
Equity Reinforcement Goal-setting Expectancy
When an employee compares their inputs and outcomes with another employee within their organization, they are making a(n) _____ comparison. A. B. C. D.
Self-outside Self-inside Other-inside Other-outside
_____ justice is the perceived degree to which an individual is treated with dignity, concern, and respect. A. B. C. D.
Procedural Equity Interactional Distributive
According to expectancy theory, which of the following factors lead to good performance ? A. B. C. D.
The individual must have the requisite ability to perform. The performance appraisal system must be perceived as fair. The rewards must be desirable to the employee. All of the above
Processes that for an individual's intensity, direction, and persistence of effort toward attaining a goal are collectively known as _____. A. B. C. D.
Redirection Motivation Cognitive effort Expectancy
In Maslow's hierarchy of needs, _____ needs include security and protection from physical and emotional harm. A. B. C. D.
Esteem Physiological Safety Self-actualization
Physiological and safety needs are _____ needs. A. B. C. D.
Higher-order Lower-order Lateral Equity
ERG theory is associated with _____. A. B. C. D.
Abraham Maslow Frederick Herzberg Clayton Alderfer Douglas McGregor
According to ERG theory, _____. A. An unsatisfied need ceases to motivate. B. A person may work on three needs at the same time. C. Frustration over a lower-level need will cause an individual to focus on higher-level needs. D. Individuals will focus on their lowest level of unsatisfied need.
Which of the following statements was most likely to have been made by a Theory X manager? A. "My employees work really hard - they seem to motivate themselves." B. "Most people are hard workers." C. "I spend most of my day closely supervising employees. When I'm not around, I suspect that they do as little as possible." D. "The key to high productivity is giving employees the opportunity to make decisions."
Which of the following assumptions are characteristic of McGregor's Theory Y? A. Employees can view work as being as natural as rest or play. B. People will exercise self-direction and self-control if they are committed to the objectives. C. The average person can learn to accept, even seek, responsibility. D. All of the above
According to Herzberg, which of the factors below is NOT considered an intrinsic motivator? A. B. C. D.
Advancement Recognition Responsibility Pay
In Herzberg's model, conditions surrounding the job such as quality of supervision pay, and company policies are known as _____ factors. A. B. C. D.
Motivation Recognition Hygiene Intrinsic
Promotional opportunities would be a(n) _____ factor in Herzberg's model. A. B. C. D.
Hygiene Motivational Extrinsic Equity
_____ suggests that introduction of extrinsic rewards reduces the enjoyment of the task. A. B. C. D.
Contingency theory Goal setting theory Cognitive evaluation theory Expectancy theory
Which of the following is an example of an intrinsic reward? A. B. C. D.
Salary Bonus Interesting work Promotion
_____ considers the degree to which peoples' reasons for pursuing goals are consistent with their interests and core values. A. B. C. D.
Self-concordance Goal setting theory Self-efficacy Equity theory
Goal-setting theory suggests all of the following EXCEPT: A. B. C. D.
Specific goals lead to higher performance. Difficult goals increase performance. leads to higher performance. Ambiguous goals increase performance.
_____ operationalizes goal-setting theory. A. B. C. D.
Equity theory Self-efficacy Management by objectives Expectancy theory
_____ refers to an individual's beliefs that he or she is capable of performing a task. A. B. C. D.
Self-efficacy Self-concordance Reinforcement Equity
Which of the following is NOT a strategy for increasing self-efficacy? A. B. C. D.
Vicarious modeling Extinction Enactive mastery Verbal persuasion
_____ refers to increasing self-efficacy by seeing someone else performing a task. A. B. C. D.
Enactive mastery Arousal Verbal persuasion Vicarious modeling
The _____ effect occurs when high performance expectations are communicated to employees. A. B. C. D.
Pygmalion Zeus Trojan Galatea
_____ theory ignores the inner state of the individual and concentrates solely on what happens to a person when he or she takes some action. A. B. C. D.
Equity Expectancy Reinforcement Self-efficacy
When an employee compares his current position with experiences in a different or former position he/she has just made a _____ comparison. A. B. C. D.
Self-outside Other-inside Other-outside Self-inside
_____ justice refers to the perceived fairness of the amount and allocation of rewards among individuals. A. B. C. D.
Interactional Distributive Equity Procedural
An entitlement attitude implies that _____. A. B. C. D.
Employees expect outcomes to be greater than inputs. Employees expect inputs to be greater than outcomes. Employees expect inputs and outcomes to be the same. Employees expect outcomes without inputs.
Which of the following is NOT a key element in motivation? A. Environment B. Intensity C. Direction
_____ is the drive to become what one is capable of becoming in Maslow's hierarchy of needs. A. Social B. Self-actualization C. Physiological
Which of the following were considered higher-order needs by Maslow? A. B. C. D.
Physiological, safety, and social needs Safety, social, and esteem needs Esteem and self-actualization needs Socially, esteem, and self-actualization needs
A Theory X manager would assume employees would _____. A. B. C. D.
Like work Seek responsibility Need to be controlled Exercise self direction
Two-factor theory suggests that extrinsic factors such as _____ cause dissatisfaction. A. B. C. D.
Advancement Working conditions Achievement Recognition
Individuals with a high need to achieve prefer all of the following EXCEPT _____. A. B. C. D.
Job situations with personal responsibility A high degree of risk Overcoming obstacles
According to the goal-setting theory of motivation, goals should be _____. A. B. C. D.
Extremely difficult Easy Difficult but attainable Similar to goals for other organizations
Manager's can increase an employee's _____ through enactive mastery, vicarious modelling, verbal persuasion, and arousal. A. Equity B. Expectancy C. Self-efficacy
_____ exists when an individual perceives that the ratio of their inputs to outcomes is dissimilar to the ration of relevant others. A. B. C. D.
Reinforcement Cognitive dissonance Equity tension Turnover
The degree to which organizational rewards satisfy an individual's personal goals or needs and the attractiveness of those potential rewards for the individual is the ____ relationship. A. B. C. D.
Rewards-personal goals Performance-reward Effort-performance Rewards-effort
Motivation is a personality trait. A. True B. False
According to Maslow, a need that is essentially satisfied no longer motivates. A. True B. False
Theory X assumptions hold a basically negative view of human beings. A. True B. False
According to Herzberg, the opposite of "satisfaction" is "dissatisfaction". A. True B. False
Hygiene factors usually lead to job satisfaction when present in a job. A. True B. False
According to goal-setting theory, a generalized goal will produce a higher level of output than a specific goal. A. True B. False
Underpayment and overpayment, according to equity theory, tend to produce similar reactions to correct the inequities. A. True B. False
In expectancy theory, the strength of a person's motivation to perform depends in part on how strongly he believes he can achieve what he attempts. A. True B. False
Motivation From Concept To Applications The _____ suggests that any job can be described in of five core job dimensions. A. opportunity to perform score B. productivity indicator model C. core competency paradigm
D. job characteristics model _____ is the degree to which a job requires completion of a whole and identifiable piece of work. A. B. C. D.
Autonomy Task significance Task identity
_____ is the horizontal expansion of a job. A. B. C. D.
Job enlargement Job sharing Job enrichment Job congruence
Jobs may be enriched by _____, grouping tasks so that an employee creates an identifiable and meaningful output. A. B. C. D.
establishing client relationships forming natural work units expanding jobs vertically opening channels
Bill and Jane each work 20 hours per week and share the same job. They benefit from their company's _____ program, which allows two employees to share one full-time job. A. B. C. D.
job sharing flexitime job rotation teleworking
Which of the following is one of the three major forms of employee involvement? A. B. C. D.
flexitime gainsharing employee stock ownership participative management
_____ is the distinct characteristic common to all participative management programs A. B. C. D.
Unilateral decision making Group consensus Continuous t decision making
Which of the following is an example of representative participation? A. B. C. D.
groupthink board representatives work sharing quality circle
A _____ is a work group of eight to ten employees and supervisors that meet regularly to discuss their quality problems, investigate causes of the problems, recommend solutions, and take corrective actions. A. B. C. D.
board representative work council quality circle employee share ownership plan
An advantage of _____ is that they allow employers to differentiate pay based on performance, so that those people thought to be high performers are given bigger raises. A. B. C. D.
piece-rate pay plans merit pay plans gainsharing plans bonus plans
_____ allow employees to choose benefits that best meet their needs. A. B. C. D.
Skill-based pay Flexible benefits Gainsharing Pay for performance
_____ plans allow employees to set aside up to the dollar amount offered in the plan to pay for particular services. A. Core-plus B. Profit sharing C. Modular
D. Flexible spending _____ range from private letters of thanks to publicized formal programs where specific types of behaviour are encouraged and the procedures for attaining recognition are clearly identified. A. B. C. D.
Flexible benefits Gainsharing plans Employee recognition programs ESOPs
Across all countries, _____ job characteristics (pay, working conditions) were consistently and positively related to satisfaction with one's job. A. B. C. D.
intrinsic intuitive extrinsic external
Richer countries, countries with stronger social security, countries that stressed individualism rather than collectivism, and countries with a smaller power distance showed a stronger relationship between the presence of _____ job characteristics (recognition, interesting job) and job satisfaction. A. B. C. D.
intrinsic intuitive extrinsic external
The _____ describes jobs in of skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, and . A. B. C. D.
opportunity to perform score productivity indicator model core competency paradigm job characteristics model
In the JCM model, the _____ dimension relates to the degree to which jobs have a substantial impact on the lives or work of other people. A. B. C. D.
autonomy task identity task significance
The core dimensions of the job characteristics model can be combined into a single predictive index, called the _____. A. B. C. D.
motivating potential score job characteristics index task significance model factor
_____ is the periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another. A. B. C. D.
Job enrichment Job enlargement Job rotation Job characteristics
_____ is the vertical expansion of a job, increasing the degree to which the worker controls the planning, execution, and evaluation of his or her work. A. B. C. D.
Job enrichment Job enlargement Job rotation Job characteristics
_____ lets employees know how well they are performing their jobs and whether their performance is improving, deteriorating, or remaining at a constant level. A. B. C. D.
Expanding jobs vertically Forming natural work units Opening channels Combining tasks
_____ allows employees some discretion over their start and stop times, while requiring a specific number of hours per week. A. B. C. D.
Job enrichment Teleworking Job sharing Flextime
The _____ variable reflects that individuals may be willing and able to perform, but that there may be obstacles that constrain performance. A. B. C. D.
autonomy job enlargement opportunity to perform task identity
_____ are a way to increase workers' control and autonomy to improve their motivation, organizational commitment, productivity, and job satisfaction. A. B. C. D.
Merit pay plans Employee share ownership plans Share option compensation programs Employee involvement programs
Participative management requires the use of _____. A. B. C. D.
power redistribution quality improvement employee ownership t decision making
_____ is considered the "most widely legislated form of employee involvement around the world". A. B. C. D.
Quality circles Representative participation Employee share ownership None of the above
While _____ programs have little impact on employee satisfaction, many studies report positive effects on productivity. A. B. C. D.
participative management representative participation measurement quality circle
_____ is consistent with participative management, while _____ aligns with the more traditional autocratic style of managing people. A. B. C. D.
Theory X, Theory Y Theory Y, Maslow's needs hierarchy Theory Y, Theory X equity theory, Theory Y
The process of initially setting pay levels requires evaluating _____, the worth of the job to the organization. A. internal equity B. profit-sharing C. piece-rates D. external equity
Piece-rate plans, merit based pay, bonuses, profit sharing, gain sharing, and employee share ownership plans are all forms of _____ programmers’. A. B. C. D.
employee involvement variable-pay job sharing total quality management
In _____, workers are paid a fixed sum for each unit of production completed. A. B. C. D.
piece-rate plans merit based pay plans bonus plans profit sharing programs
_____ are organization-wide programs that distribute compensation based on some established formula designed around a company's profitability. A. B. C. D.
Piece-rate plans Merit based pay plans Bonus plans Profit sharing programs
_____ are company-established benefit plans in which employees acquire share, often at below-market prices, as part of their benefits. A. B. C. D.
Gain sharing plans Employee share ownership plans Share options Variable pay programs
_____ can be uniquely tailored to reflect difference in employee needs based on age, marital status, spouses' benefit status, number and age of dependents. A. B. C. D.
Skill-based pay Flexible benefits Gain sharing Pay for performance
_____ are predesigned packages of benefits, with each module put together to meet the needs of a specific group of employees. A. B. C. D.
Core-plus options Modular plans Flexible spending plans Pay for performance plans
_____ consist of a core of essential benefits and a menu-like selection of other benefit options from which employees can select and add to the core. A. B. C. D.
Core-plus options Modular plans Flexible spending plans Pay for performance plans
_____ allow employees to set aside up to the dollar amount offered in the plan to pay for particular services. A. B. C. D.
Core-plus options Modular plans Flexible spending plans Pay for performance plans
_____ is an example of an extrinsic reward. A. B. C. D.
Challenging work Opportunity for advancement. Recognition Compensation
A recent survey of employees in a variety of work settings found that _____ was considered to be the most powerful workplace motivator. A. B. C. D.
working conditions pay recognition location
An obvious advantage of workplace recognition programmers is that they are _____. A. B. C. D.
unusual intuitive inexpensive complex
An employee recognition program is most likely to be considered fair in which of the following jobs? A. B. C. D.
sales representative customer service representative human resource manager receptionist
Which of the following is NOT a recommendation concerning employee motivation? A. B. C. D.
Allow employees to participate in decisions that affect them. Recognize individual differences. Link rewards to seniority. Use goals and .
The _____ says that internal rewards are obtained by individuals when they learn that they personally have performed well on a task that they care about. A. B. C. D.
management by objectives plan participative decision making model job characteristics model performance system
_____ (or cross-training) is the periodic shifting of an employee from one task to another. A. B. C. D.
Job enlargement Employee involvement Job rotation Job enrichment
_____ may be implemented by combining tasks, forming natural work units, establishing client relationships, expanding jobs vertically, and opening channels. A. B. C. D.
Job enlargement Employee involvement Job rotation Job enrichment
Writers, lawyers, analysts, and employees who spend the majority of their time on computers or on the telephone are natural candidates for _____. A. B. C. D.
department modeling job sharing teleworking flextime
_____ is a participative process that uses the entire capacity of employees and is designed to encourage increased commitment to the organization's success. A. MBO B. Employee involvement C. Reengineering
A _____ is a group of employees and supervisors who meet regularly to discuss their quality problems and recommend solutions. A. B. C. D.
department team cooperative group evaluation team quality circle
Piece-rate plans, merit based pay, bonuses, profit sharing, gain sharing, and employee share ownership plans are all forms of _____ programs. A. B. C. D.
ESOP gain sharing variable-pay Scanlon
_____ is an incentive plan where improvements in group productivity determine the total amount of money that is allocated. A. B. C. D.
ESOP Gain sharing Variable pay Scanlon plan
The three most popular types of _____ are modular plans, core-plus options, and flexible spending s. A. B. C. D.
share options gain sharing plans variable pay programs flexible benefits
Task identity refers to the degree to which the job has a substantial impact on the lives or work of others. A. True B. False
Employee involvement is a participative process that uses the entire capacity of employees and is designed to encourage increased commitment to the organization's success. A. True B. False
Quality circles have the authority to find problems, assess alternative actions, and implement a solution. A. True B. False
Gain sharing programs may also be referred to as profit-sharing programs. A. True B. False
ESOPs are company-established benefit plans in which employees acquire shares as part of their benefits. A. True B. False
One advantage of bonuses over merit pay is that bonuses reward employees for recent performance. A. True B. False
Skill-based pay encourages employees to concentrate on one or two highly desirable skills. A. True B. False
Traditional benefit packages were designed for the typical employee of the 1950s; fewer than 10% of employees now fit that stereotype, requiring an updated look at these benefits. A. True B. False
A survey of 1,500 employees found that recognition was the most powerful workplace motivator. A. True B. False
Communication When employees are required to communicate grievances to their supervisor, communication is performing a _____ function. A. B. C. D.
Information emotional expression control motivation
When communicating, a sender _____ a message and es the message through a medium or channel. A. B. C. D.
feeds back decodes transfers encodes
_____ channels are established by the organization and transmit messages that are related to the professional activities of . A. B. C. D.
Professional Informal Formal Member
_____ communication keeps managers aware of how employees feel about their jobs. A. B. C. D.
Upward Lateral Downward Emotional
A(n) _____ network is used by self-managed work teams. A. B. C. D.
wheel chain all-channel spoken
Which is NOT a characteristic of the grapevine? A. B. C. D.
It is not controlled by management. It is perceived by most employees as being more believable. It largely serves the self-interests of the people within it. It is a highly accurate source of information.
Electronic communication includes _____. A. B. C. D.
video conferencing e-mail instant messaging all of the above
_____ is an effective computer-aided form of communication, allowing messages to be sent to one or thousands of people simultaneously. A. B. C. D.
Videoconferencing Instant messaging E-mail An intranet
_____ is the process of organizing and distributing an organization's collective wisdom so the right information gets to the right people at the right time. A. E-mail B. Communication C. Knowledge management
_____ messages are likely to be complicated and have the potential for misunderstanding. A. B. C. D.
Complicated Routine Non routine Rich
_____ refers to the purposeful manipulation of language so that it will be seen more favorably by the receiver. A. B. C. D.
Barrier making Deception Filtering None of the above
_____ is a barrier to effective communication - people receiving information tend to protect their interests and expectations into communications as they decode them. A. B. C. D.
Information overload Selective perception Filtering Language
A fear of speaking in front of groups or to other people is known as _____. A. B. C. D.
fear of speaking speaking phobia selective perception communication apprehension
According to author Deborah Tannen, men use talk to emphasize _____, while women use it to create _____. A. B. C. D.
status, connection closeness, emotion intimacy, independence affiliation, power
_____ must include both the transference and understanding of meaning. A. B. C. D.
Writing Reading Speaking Communication
Teasing and verbal harassment are forms of _____ control. A. B. C. D.
formal informal lateral normal
_____ is the process of converting a message to a symbolic form. A. B. C. D.
Decoding Retranslation Encoding Receiving
Communication barriers that distort the clarity of a message are known as _____. A. B. C. D.
noise conference static
A memo is typically transmitted through a(n) _____ communication channel. A. B. C. D.
formal corporate informal institutional
Communication from a supervisor to a subordinate is _____ communication. A. B. C. D.
upward lateral downward cross-functional
A climate survey is an example of _____ communication. A. B. C. D.
downward lateral upward informal
Which of the following is NOT true of oral communication?
A. Oral messages can be conveyed and a response received in a minimal amount of time. B. Oral messages reduce distortion. C. Oral communication allows for rapid detection of unclear messages. D. The grapevine often communicates orally.
Which of the following is NOT true of written communication? A. B. C. D.
Written communication is readily verifiable. With written communication, the message can be stored for an indefinite period. People tend to be less careful in writing than in speaking. Written communication may be physically available for later reference
_____ is the emphasis given to words or phrases. A. B. C. D.
Stress Inflection Tonal duration Intonation
The _____ network relies on a central figure to act as the conduit for the entire group's communication. A. B. C. D.
all-channel chain wheel spoke
A _____ network is appropriate if accuracy is most important. A. B. C. D.
all-channel chain wheel spoke
Which of the following is an advantage of face-to-face communication over e-mail? A. B. C. D.
Personal touch Non-verbal cues Tone All of the above
_____ refers to real time e-mail. A. B. C. D.
Rapid e-mail Close-up Instant messaging Instant Replay
Who are the fastest growing s of Facebook? A. B. C. D.
elementary school students high school students people over 25 college students
A _____ is an internet log. A. B. C. D.
bternal wheel intranet medium
_____ allows employees in an organization to have meetings with people at different locations. A. B. C. D.
A network Videoconferencing A communication channel Networking
A _____ is the process of organizing and distributing an organization's collective wisdom so the right information gets to the right people at the right time. A. B. C. D.
knowledge dissemination system knowledge management system cornucopia decision control system
_____ refers to the amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode. A. B. C. D.
Signal strength Interpersonal bandwidth Information load Channel richness
Managers that are _____ have the ability to match appropriate media richness with the ambiguity involved in the communication. A. B. C. D.
media-savvy techno-savvy media-sensitive filtered
Rob routinely withholds negative information in the weekly report he transmits to his supervisor. In of communication, Rob is engaging in _____. A. B. C. D.
selective perception "muddying the waters" filtering information overload
_____ is the process of receivers projecting their interests and expectations into communications as they decode them. A. B. C. D.
Selective perception Noise Information overload
When individuals experience _____, they select out, over, or forget information. A. B. C. D.
selective perception information overload emotion filtering
The _____ initiates a message by encoding a thought. A. B. C. D.
channel sender receiver medium
The chief means of conveying messages is _____ communication. A. B. C. D.
nonverbal interpersonal oral written
The _____ communication network is best illustrated by an unstructured committee. A. B. C. D.
wheel all-channel interpersonal circle
Electronic communication includes all of the following EXCEPT: A. internet logs. B. telephone calls. C. videoconferencing.
_____ refers to the amount of information that can be transmitted during a communication episode. A. B. C. D.
Filtering Perception Channel richness
Jake tells his boss only what he believes the boss wants to hear. He is engaging in _____. A. B. C. D.
filtering selective perception jargon
Which of the following is NOT a barrier to effective communication? A. B. C. D.
Filtering Channel richness Selective perception Language
Tannin’s research indicates that men use talk to ___, while women use it to _____. A. B. C. D.
emphasize status; create connection build relationships; get promotions establish blame; emphasize status Create networks; emphasize separateness
In _____ cultures, the words themselves are the primary conveyors of meaning A. B. C. D.
rich low-context symbolic semantic
In the communication process, decoding should precede encoding. A. True B. False
The advantages of oral communication are speed and . A. True B. False
The all-channel network rigidly follows the formal chain of command. A. True B. False
Organizational boundaries become less relevant as a result of electronic communications. A. True B. False
Selective perception refers to a sender manipulating information so that it will be seen more favorable by the receiver. A. True B. False
Oral apprehensive may find it extremely difficult to talk with others face-to-face. A. True B. False
Men are more direct than women in conversation. A. True B. False
Low-context cultures rely heavily on nonverbal and subtle situational cues when communicating with others. A. True B. False
Organization culture When an organization becomes _____, it takes on a life of its own, apart from its founders or any of its . A. B. C. D.
institutionalized stabilized cultured mature
_____ is a shared system of meaning among employees. A. B. C. D.
Organizational systems Collective sensemaking Organizational culture sensitivity
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an organization's culture? A. B. C. D.
Outcome orientation Assertiveness Innovation and risk taking Attention to detail
The term "organizational culture" is considered _____, while "job satisfaction" is _____. A. B. C. D.
evaluative, objective subjective, descriptive descriptive, evaluative objective, subjective
Which of the following is NOT a function of culture? A. B. C. D.
Enhances the stability of the social system Conveys a sense of identity Acceptance of diversity Generation of commitment
Individual-organizational fit refers to _____. A. B. C. D.
an employee's pre-socialization whether an employee has an appropriate educational background the technical proficiency of employees whether the applicant or employee's attitudes and behavior are compatible with the culture.
_____ is known for its democratic culture. A. B. C. D.
W. R. Gore K-mart BFI Wal-mart
The process of "on boarding" is a type of ____ at Limited Brands. A. B. C. D.
training encounter socialization metamorphosis
The _____ stage explicitly recognizes that each individual arrives with a set of values, attitudes, and expectations. A. B. C. D.
selection prearrival metamorphosis encounter
Which of the following is NOT associated with organizations with high ethical standards? A. B. C. D.
high in risk tolerance high in innovation focus on means high aggressiveness
Employees will view the behavior of _____ as a benchmark for defining appropriate behavior. A. B. C. D.
their immediate supervisor government officials top management new employees
A _____ is defined as a culture that emphasizes building on employee strengths, rewards more than it punishes, and emphasizes individual vitality and growth. A. B. C. D.
positive organizational culture centralized organizational culture bureaucracy matrix organization
Institutionalization is the process through which _____. A. B. C. D.
individuals become a part of an organization an organization takes on a life of its own an individual is offered a life-time position an organization employs a critical mass of people
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of organizational culture? A. B. C. D.
Attention to detail Innovation Formalization Team orientation
A strong culture builds all of the following EXCEPT ____. A. B. C. D.
cohesiveness loyalty quality organizational commitment
Culture is most likely to be a liability when _____. A. B. C. D.
it increases consistency of behavior the environment is dynamic management is incompetent it reduces ambiguity
Which of the following is NOT a way that culture is created?
A. Founders hire and keep employees who think and feel the way they do. B. Founders indoctrinate and socialize employees to their way of thinking and feeling. C. Founders poll early employees to determine the appropriate cultural values. D. The founders' own behaviour acts as a role model that encourages employees to identify with them and thereby internalize their beliefs.
All of the following serve to sustain a culture EXCEPT _____. A. B. C. D.
selection formalization socialization top management
_____ is the process that adapts employees to the organization's culture. A. B. C. D.
Training Mentoring Socialization Communicating
Which of the following is NOT a common form by which culture is transmitted to employees? A. B. C. D.
Stories Selection Rituals Language
Which of the following is NOT identified that managers can create a more ethical culture? A. B. C. D.
Visibly reward ethical acts. Set aggressive performance goals. Communicate ethical expectations. Provide protective mechanisms.
The origin of culture as an independent variable affecting an employee's attitudes and behavior can be traced back more than 50 years to the notion of _____. A. B. C. D.
bureaucracy organizational structure institutionalization uniformity
_____ refers to the degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on employees. A. B. C. D.
Team orientation Attention to detail Outcome orientation People orientation
_____ is the degree to which management focuses on results or outcomes rather than on the techniques and processes used to achieve those outcomes. A. B. C. D.
Attention to detail Innovation and risk taking Outcome orientation Stability
Bureaucratic organizations tend to maintain the status quo and have cultures that emphasize _____. A. B. C. D.
stability mediocrity outcome orientation aggressiveness
A _____ culture expresses the core values that are shared by a majority of the organization's . A. weak B. dominant C. core
_____ tend to develop in large organizations to reflect common problems, situations, or experiences that face. A. B. C. D.
Groups Teams Weak cultures Subcultures
Microsoft's culture values _____ and risk taking. A. B. C. D.
attention to detail team orientation people orientation aggressiveness
In a _____, the organization's core values are both intensely held and widely shared. A. B. C. D.
strong culture transitional culture weak culture intense culture
A strong culture can substitute for _____, which also creates predictability, orderliness, and consistency. A. B. C. D.
specialization formalization centralization authority
In its role as a _____ mechanism, culture creates distinctions between one organization and others. A. B. C. D.
control stabilization boundary-defining identification
When is culture a liability? A. When the environment is stable B. When there is little competition C. When the shared values are not in agreement with those that will further the organization's effectiveness D. When employees come to the organization with similar cultural backgrounds
How is culture created? A. The founders indoctrinate new employees with their values and vision. B. The founders hire and retain only employees who think and feel the same way that they do. C. The founders act as role models of acceptable behaviour and values. D. All of the above.
At _____, there no bosses, job titles, or chains of command. A. B. C. D.
IBM BFI Delta W. R. Gore
_____ is a process with three stages: prearrival, encounter, and metamorphosis. A. B. C. D.
Socialization Selection Contrition Customization
During the _____ stage, the newly hired employee confronts the possible dichotomy between her expectations and reality. A. B. C. D.
prearrival encounter metamorphosis customization
Nike employees recount the story of how co-founder Bill Bowerman went to his workshop and poured rubber into his wife's waffle iron to create a better running shoe. This story highlights Nike's culture of _____. A. B. C. D.
socialization innovation diversity aggressiveness
Which of the following is NOT likely to shape an ethical culture? A. B. C. D.
High risk tolerance High aggressiveness Focuses on means as well as outcomes for innovation
Ethical ambiguities can be minimized by creating and disseminating a(n) _____. A. B. C. D.
employee handbook organizational code of ethics performance standard quota system
To create an ethical organizational culture, performance appraisals should evaluate the ____ as well as the extent to which goals are reached. A. B. C. D.
importance economy environment means
Which of the following is NOT an example of a formal protective mechanism? A. B. C. D.
ethical counsellors ethical officers ombudsmen auditors
A _____ organizational culture emphasizes building on employee strengths, rewards more than it punishes, and emphasizes vitality and growth. A. positive B. centralized C. formalized
When an organization has become institutionalized, its original goals become viewed as the prime directive. A. True B. False
Strong cultures are made up of values that are intensely held and widely shared. A. True B. False
The degree to which management decisions take into consideration the effect of outcomes on people within the organization is termed outcome orientation. A. True B. False
Consistency of behavior is an asset to an organization when it faces a dynamic environment. A. True B. False
The founders of an organization generally have little impact on the organization's culture since they are so far removed from the employees. A. True B. False
Three forces play a particularly important part in sustaining culture: selection practices, promotion policies, and socialization methods. A. True B. False
Language can serve to unite of a given culture as new employees learn the acronyms and jargon specific to the organization. A. True B. False
A strong organizational culture will exert more influence on employees then a weak one. A. True B. False
A positive organizational culture is defined as a culture that emphasizes building on employee strengths, rewards more than it punishes, and emphasizes individual vitality and growth. A. True B. False